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Ready for the Checkride; ..22-Complex Questions You Should Be Able to Explain Simply for the Checkride; ...9-Checkride Questions/Answers1; ...8-Questions/Answers2; ...9-Question/Answer3; ...11-Questions/Answers4; .
11-Questions/Answers5; ...4-Questions/Answers6; .....4-Question/Answers7; ...2-Questions/Answers8;  ..2Question/Answers9; ...3-Questions/answers10; ..5-Questions/Answers11; ...1-Question/Answer12; ...Class D Airspace; ...1-Question/Answers13; ...4-Questions/Answers14; ...4Questions/Answers15; ...7-Questions/Answers16; 17-Questions/Answers17; ...16-Questions/Answers18; ...16-Questions Answers19; ...15-Questions/Answers20; ....17-Questions/Answers21; ...25-Questions/Answers22; ...16-Questions/answers23; ...9-Questions/Answers24; ...42-Unanswered Questions25; ...

Ready for the Checkride:
--Be prepared to a level of competent control, conscientious planning, and safety.
--No need know every answer in every item on flying you've ever read.
--No need to be an expert in your technical knowledge...
--No need to be flying to the level of an ATP...
--The examiners are concerned with your ability to exercise good judgment, and ability to fly safely. Perfection is not a requirement.
--If you make a mistake, suggest that you start over since you can do better.
--Examiners are willing to give a second chance.
--If you make a poor approach to a landing, Advise the examiner as to why you are dissatisfied and make an early go-around. This shows good judgment, not poor flying.
--Try to relax. Use the flight as an opportunity to demonstrate how well you have been trained.
--The worst that is going to happen is failing the checkride. The failure is more likely to save your life than not.
--Don't worry about failing; concentrate on your flying. Your instructor signed you off because he believed you could pass.
--The retest will be to check those areas that you had difficulty with.
--Make sure you know where to find the answers. Use the AIM/FAR, POH, weight and balance documents, E6B, sectional, A/FD or weather briefing material.
--Have a book selection available. If you can't answer a question, ask if you can use your materials to find the answer.
--Log on to DUATS for a weather briefing every day before the test. Bring the briefing and be able to read it. Bring a copy of the weight and balance with you.
--Be prepared to say "I can find that in the AIM." or "That's in the POH. Let's look in the FARs.
--A simulated emergency does not give you the right to deviate from the FAR's; only a real emergency does that.
--As the pilot in command during your test you are the responsible party for the safety of the flight. If the DE suggests anything you feel to be less than safe, make an alternate suggestion that you feel more appropriate.
--Keep your airspeed below Va. Advise the DE of your altitude and heading on entry.
--Hold your altitude and divide your attention in and out of the airplane.
--Keep flight coordinated and at altitude. Fly at cruise power in ground reference so you can reduce the hazard of a low speed low altitude stall. Losing altitude is most likely due to making a steeper bank. If you lose altitude in a bank, reduce the bank angle before applying pitch change. Rolling out on headings is required to meet PTS criteria.
--Study the engine and airframe logbooks before the test post-it inspections.
--"Clear!"; Do the brake check; and check engine instruments at start, runup, flight configuration changes and flight checkpoints.
--If the landing doesn't feel right, go around.
--There is no way to make every approach lead to a good landing.
--Fly the airplane first, talk is a distant second.
--Violating a PTS tolerance is not the end of the test. If you are making a correction you may still perform acceptably.
--Coordination is expected in every maneuver but especially during a takeoff, stalls and steep turns.
--Know the three types of NOTAMs. Get them for your flight.

Complex Questions 
You Should Be Able to Explain Simply for the Checkride
1. What makes an airplane stall?
2. What are flaps for?
3. Why does a plane turn when banked?
4. Why do we lean the mixture?
5. What is the rudder for?
6. What is density altitude?
7. How does density altitude affect the airplane?
8. How does density altitude affect performance?
9. How are flight controls used for taxiing?
10. Why do we takeoff and land at Vref?
11. What is ground effect?
12. What determines if a crosswind landing is possible?
13. Why is a constant approach speed helpful?
14. What is the difference between TC and TH?
15. How many brief statements can you make about the wind?
16. How do we use MC?
17. How is the initial call-up to Approach Control different from FSSs?
18. What special use has the frequency: 122.0, 122.2, 122.1, 122.95, 122.9, 122.75
19. What does an amber beacon at an airport mean? (Obsolete and being replaced by the letters RT on sectional charts.
20. How many differences are there in fuel?
21. How many different ways can you use to find an unknown frequency?
22. How many different ways can you use to determine runway in use?

1. Angle of Attack
2. Angle of descent
3. Change in lift vectors
4. Weight of air/fuel mix for performance
5. Keeps tail behind nose
6. Aircraft performance altitude
7. Power, lift, thrust
8. Faster ground speeds, lower climb rate
9. Clime into; dive away
10. Weight determines Vso for shortest performance
11. 1/2 wingspan AGL region of low drag=best performance
12. Keeping nose straight
13. Improves judgment
14. WCA (Wind correction angle)
15. Never as forecast
16. Sets flight altitudes above 3000' AGL
17. Identification and "over", vs identification and "frequency"
18. Flight watch, FSS universal, FSS receive only; all controlled airports UNICOM; airports w/unlisted freq.air to air
19. Right traffic (Amber light on wind sock pole is being replaced by the letters RT on sectionals.
20. Octane, color, smell, feel, residue
21. too many; make your own list
22. too many; make your own list

Questions and Answers

Checkride questions/answers1
1. What must be in the pilots possession before flight?
2. What entries must be in a pilot's log book before he can legally carry passengers?
3. What are required papers for an aircraft?
4. What must preflight items include?
5. Name four specific use transponder codes.
6. Name four specific oxygen use levels.
7. Where is an altitude encoder required?
8. Name maximum speeds required by FAR's.
9. Discuss altitude requirements required by FAR's such as: minimum safe, requirements for inhabited areas, populated stadiums, one person, cloud clearances/altitudes


1. A pilot must have in his possession for flight a pilot license that is good until revoked and current medical good 6-months, 1-year, 2-years. And three by class depending on age. (radio not required in U. S.)

2. A pilot's logbook must have a current flight review or new rating acquired, verified takeoffs/landings under day/night conditions in last 90 days, Checkout and endorsements in type, high altitude, complex aircraft, and high performance required.

3. An aircraft must have visible in the cockpit its airworthiness, registration, (radio station for foreign flight), manual or placards of limitations. Weight and balance, limitation placards, ELT battery life limit placard must be available in aircraft. The engine-log, aircraft log and ELT battery installation dated/signed not required aboard but must be available.

4. A preflight must have all available information related to; weather; aircraft performance; fuel to destination plus 30 min. day, 45 min. night; destination runway lengths; alternatives. Sectional not specifically mentioned.
A current Airport/Facilities directory is highly recommended.

5. Basic transponder codes are: 1200 VFR; 7700 emergency; 7600 radio emergency; and 7500 hijack.

6. Below 12500 none; 12500 to 14000 1/2 hour none; 14000 to 15000 pilot; above 15000 everybody.

7. A Mode C altitude transponder altitude encoder is required above 10,000', within 30 nautical miles of a Class B airport, and inside, above, or below the footprint of Class C airspace.

8. Maximum speeds for aircraft is set at 250-kts below 10,000; 200 kts below class B, C or in Class D airspace.

9. Minimum safe is being able to land no damage/injury; 1000 above 2000 lateral stadiums and congested areas; 500' clear of people in sparse areas; no limit if intention to land; local jurisdictions set limits at airports; cloud clearance require clear of clouds below 700'/1200' Class G; 1000 above, 500 below and 2000 lateral clearance required below 10,000', 1000' above/below and 1-mile lateral clearance required above 10,000'; 2500 AGL above Class Delta; no flight above /below Class Bravo without clearance; 12500,14000,15000 oxygen requirements; above 10,000' transponder is required ; 18,000 IFR. DME required above 24,000'.

Checkride Questions/Answers2

1. Discuss existence, function, and requirements of Class Delta Airspace
2.How is traffic direction determined at differing airports?
3. What is the hemispheric rule and when does it not apply?
4. How is the Magnetic Course used in the real world of flying?
5. How is Magnetic Course obtained?
6. What does the isogonic line show?
7. Identify the ATC light signals.
8. When weather minimums go below VFR minimums of three mile visibility or a ceiling of less than 1000' special VFR (SVFR) clearances are required in Classes D and C airports. What does this clearance do?


1. Class Delta airspace exists when the tower is open, communications out and prior to departure, controls traffic but not separation. Class Delta limits airspace to one aircraft at a time when weather is below VFR minimums to guarantee IFR aircraft separation. The Class Delta is of varied diameter and shape. Size is standard at 4.1-nautical miles from airport center. Class Delta can be as small as 3.1 nautical miles (CCR).
2. Standard traffic is left turns unless tower clearances, instructions, segmented circle; wind indicators; or amber light on windsock specify right traffic.
3. All aircraft above the ground by more than 3000' must comply with the hemispheric rule when in level flight. Easterly magnetic courses are ate odd-thousands + 500' and westerly courses are at even-thousands + 500' Within 3000' of the ground the hemispheric rule does not apply..
4. Magnetic course determines if the hemispheric rule applies above 3000' AGL.
5. The magnetic course is found by taking the + angular difference between the true-north pole lines of a chart and the direction a compass points to as magnetic north pole. The amount is indicated on magenta isogonic lines the run as - - - - diagonally across the chart in about 1-foot intervals. Somewhere along the line there will be a degree or degree-30-minute number giving the variation. The letter E for east means that the difference is subtracted and the letter W for west means to add this number to the True Course direction. This angle can be determined by comparing the two 'norths' of a VOR compass rose.
6. The angular difference between the north pole and magnetic north.
7. See chart in AIM. Flashing white no meaning in air, flashing red on ground clear runway.
8. The Classes B, C and D areas are shown as --- , magenta, or blue on the sectional. San Francisco does not allow fixed wing SVFR. ATC can issue a SVFR clearance only at a pilot's request. The Clearance specifies
certain directions, altitudes, distances and restrictions for both flying and reporting. All of this clearance should be written down and read back to ATC. The restrictions are as to altitude, visibility and cloud clearance.
Maintaining SVFR requires at least one-mile visibility and clear of clouds.

Checkride Questions/Answers3

1. How does the nose gear of a Cessna and a Piper differ?
2. Under what circumstance might full pressure on a Piper (fully operational) brake prove ineffective?
3. How high is an FAA tree?
4. How does a Warning Area differ from those in a Restricted area?
5. How do the Sectional representation of Federal and State Game Reserves differ in their presentation?
6. Why is there a yellow line down the middle of taxiways?
7. How can flying direct to a VOR kill you?
8.What is the significance of flights over 50 nautical miles?
9.What is the difference between true course and true heading?


1. The Cessna nose gear is steerable by means of the rudder pedals through springs. This is only when the strut is depressed. In flight, the Cessna nose gear hangs down and aligns with the relative wind. This means the wheel is aligned with the direction of travel (runway) in a crosswind landing even in a cross-control condition. The Piper nose gear is directly linked to the rudder and rudder pedals both in air and on the ground. In a crosswind landing the cross-control approach with the Piper results in the nose wheel being at an angle to the runway. Any Piper crosswind landing must be initially on one main wheel only. The nose wheel must be straightened before making ground contact.
2. The Piper has a cabin support bar across the cockpit just above the rudder pedals. Inadvertent placement of the toes above the pedal toe-stops can bring the feet into contact with this bar. In this situation neither steering or braking is possible.(Hand brake still works)
3.The FAA obstacle clearance altitude used for short-field takeoffs is 50'. After liftoff and climb at Vx a C-150 can reach 50' by the time you count to ten.
4. The only difference is that Warning Areas exist over international waters that cannot be restricted from international travel. The hazards of each are identical.
5. Federal minimum altitudes are 2000' AGL. This is shown in a presentation on the margin of the sectional. State's minimums are 2000' AGL. This is shown near each reserve in magenta. Some of these altitudes are
mandatory while others are recommended. Violations can cost the value of a $50,000 airplane. Watch out.
6. The yellow centerline is a suggestion that an aircraft should taxi in the middle of the taxiway. You have a
form of guarantee that you will not hit anything while on the yellow line.
7. CCR VOR as an example of this hazard to your survival. It can be received from behind Mt. Diablo in such a manner as to fly the unaware aircraft into the mountain.
8. Cross-country flights over 50 miles are logged as cross-country if landing is made when required for ratings. Otherwise, log flights to airports regardless of distance as cross-country. 50 of over 50 mile flight hours required to take IFR practical test after getting private rating. When you fly go over 50 miles every chance you can until you get your raitings.
9. Wind correction angle

Checkride Questions/Answers4

1. Explain how aircraft performance differs between Vx and Vy.
2. When can a private pilot accept money from passengers?
3. Explain the function of the magenta/blue tint areas of the sectional.
4. Where can you find an aircraft's true airspeed?
5. What limitation is placed on night SVFR?
6. What is the meaning of an airport beacon operating in the daytime?
7. Define the following and give the actual airspeeds for the aircraft used: Vso, Vx, Vy, Va, Vne
8. Where can you find pressure altitude?
9. What are basic VFR minimums within 1200' of the surface in uncontrolled airspace? Day vs night
10. What is the VFR minimum in Class D airspace? How do you tell if not VFR?
11. What is the discrete use of the following frequencies? 121.5; 122,0; 122.2, 126.2 122.95
1. Vx clears an obstacle in shorter distance but does not gain as much height in time. Vy gains most altitude over given time.
2. Only to share expenses.
3. These transition areas become effective when weather is below VFR minimums. If unable to maintain 1000' above, 500' below or 3 mile visibility, the non-IFR flight is required to descend to within 700' AGL/magenta areas or 1200' AGL blue (all other) areas and maintain 1-mile clear of clouds. This assures IFR flights safe clearances. (A special transition area exists northwest of Ukiah with set altitudes from 7500 to 9500 which avoids the up and down terrain avoidance required by the 700/1200 foot transition areas.
4. You find true airspeed (TAS) in the aircraft flight manual (AFM) or the Pilots Operating Handbook (POH)
5. The pilot must be IFR current in IFR airplane. CCR tower says that night SVFR would be permitted in the Class Delta airspace if you could enter or leave the airspace in required night VFR conditions.
6. An airport rotating beacon operating in day time indicates that the weather below VFR minimums and a, SVFR clearance is required for VFR aircraft.
7.Vso is Minimum safe operating speed. Vx is best angle of climb speed. Vy is best rate of climb speed.
Vne is redline or never exceed speed..
8. Pressure altitude is found when you set the altimeter to 29.92
9. Basic day VFR minimums are 1-mile clear of clouds in day transition areas; otherwise it is 3 mile 500/1000,2000 day or night t unless in the pattern 1/2 mile of airport.
10. Class D VFR minimums are 1000 ceiling, 3 mile visibility, as given by ATIS. Below minimums during the day are shown by the rotating beacon..
11. Radio frequencies for: Emergency is 121.5; Flight Watch is 122.0; Universal FSS frequency is 122.2; Military Towers 126.2, Controlled Airport Unicom is 122.95.

Checkride Question/Answers5

1. What can we do to avoid vertigo?
2. What is required if you fail a written test for first time?
3. What is the definition of a complex aircraft?
4. How can the differences between adding power to an automobile and an airplane get you into trouble?
5. Why does the trim seem to work backwards?
6. What is meant by the stabilized approach?
7. What aspect of your flight training and technique will "break down" during the flight test, if not part of your usual practice?
8. How should you use excess airspeed in the event of an engine failure emergency?
9. How do high density altitudes change your indicated approach speed for landings?
10. How do you determine the dimensions and limitations of a prohibited, restricted, or alert area.
11. What is basic VFR minimums above/below 10,000' in controlled airspace?

1. Vertigo sensations cannot be prevented; they can be ignored. You don't appreciate the trained will power required to ignore vertigo until you have had it.
2. No wait, get a new instructor sign-off to take test.
3. Constant speed propeller, flaps retractable gear.
4. Power alone will decrease an aircraft's airspeed by inducing a climb.
5. Raising the wheel lowers the nose.
6. Hands-off flight approach on glide path and at airspeed.
7. Use of a checklist is the first thing you lose under stress.
8. In an engine failure use any excess airspeed to gain altitude a hundred feed can make a 'world' of difference.
9. IAS should be the same for every landing. Apparent ground speeds can vary according to wind and density altitude. Flare is better made closer to the ground the higher the density altitude due to decreased ground effect.
10. Refer to the sectional upper margin; call a Flight Service Station. Refer to Airport/Facilities Directory.
11. Cloud clearance requires above ten-thousand feet is 1000 above 1000 below 1 mile lateral with 5-mile visibility; Basic cloud clearance below 10,000' is 1000 above 500 below 2000 lateral with-3 mile visibility;

Checkride Question/Answers6
1. No person may pilot an aircraft, with or without passengers, unless his logbook contains an endorsement that he has satisfactorily passed a flight review within the past _________ months. FAR 61.56(c)
2. Requirements for pilot carrying passengers FAR 61.57
Daytime_______ Nighttime _______
3. What documents must be on board the aircraft at all times. FAR 91.203, and 91.9 and Federal Communications Commission.
4. Discuss use of radar services for AIM 4-16

1. 61.56 (c)... Since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which that pilot acts a pilot in command.
2. 61.57 (c) General experience. No person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, ...unless within the preceding 90 days, he has made three takeoffs and three landings as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class.... If the aircraft is a tailwheel airplane, the landings must have been made to a full stop in a tailwheel airplane.
61.57 (d) Night experience. No person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise unless, within the preceding 90 days, he has made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during that period in the category and class of aircraft to be used.
3. 91.203 Civil aircraft: Certifications required.
(a) person may operate a civil aircraft unless it has within it the following:
(1) An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate.
(2) An effective U.S. registration certificate issued to its owner or, for operation within the United States, the second duplicate copy (pink) of the Aircraft Registration Application as provided for in Sec 47.31(b)

(b) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless the airworthiness certificate required by paragraph (a) of the section... is displayed at the cabin or in cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.
91.9 Civil aircraft flight manual, marking, and placard requirements
(a) person may operate a civil aircraft without complying with the operating limitations specified in the approved Airplane Flight Manual, markings, and placards...
(b) No person may operate a U. S. -registered civil aircraft -
(1) For which an Airplane Flight Manual is required by Sec. 21.5 of this chapter, unless there is available in the aircraft a current approved Airplane Flight Manual...
(2) For which an Airplane Flight Manual is not requires by Sec. 21.5 of this chapter, unless there is available in the aircraft a current approved Airplane flight Manual, approved manual material, markings and placards, or any combination thereof.
(c) No person may operate a U. S. -registered civil aircraft unless that aircraft is identified in accordance with part 45 of this chapter.

RADIO The Federal Communications Commission must issue a radio station license specific to the aircraft or organization (group license). A copy of that license is required to be aboard the aircraft at all times. There is no longer a required radio license for the pilot in the United States. Such a license may be required in countries outside the U. S.


Checkride Question/Answers7

1. What documents must be in the possession of the pilot? 61.3
2. Oxygen requirements for flight above 12500, 14000, 15000. FAR 91.211
3. What are the aircraft equipment and pilot experience requirements for flight in Class B airspace? FAR 91.131
4. What are the common frequencies for contacting the FSS? Sectional
1. 61.3 Requirement for certificates, rating, and authorizations.
(a) Pilot certificate. No person may act as pilot in command ...of a civil aircraft of United States registry unless he has in his personal possession a current pilot certificate issued to him under this part.
(c) Medical certificate. person may act as pilot in command ... under a certificate issued to him under this part unless he has in his personal possession an appropriate current medical certificate issued under Part 67 of this chapter.

2. 91.21 Supplemental oxygen
(a) General.
(1) At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500' MSL up to and including 14,000 (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration.
(2) At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000' (MSL) unless the requires minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes; and
(3) At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000' (MSL) unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.

3. 91.131 Class Bravo airspace
(a) Operating rules. No person may operate an aircraft within a terminal control area designated in part 71 of this chapter except in compliance with the following rules:
(b) Pilot requirements.
(1) No person may takeoff or land a civil aircraft at an airport within a terminal control area or operate a civil aircraft within a terminal control area unless:
(i) The pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate; or
(ii) The aircraft is operated by a student pilot who has met the requirements of Sec. 61.95 (Instruction and 90 day sign-off for operation in but not landing at SFO)
(c) Communications and navigation equipment requirements.
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within a terminal control area unless that aircraft is equipped with
(1) For IFR operations. An operative VOR or TACAN receiver; and
(2) For all operations. An operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on appropriate frequencies
(d) Transponder requirement. No person may operate an aircraft in Class B airspace unless the aircraft is equipped with the operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment specified.

4. 122.2 is a (nearly) universal frequency if a more discrete frequency is unknown. The heavy lined boxes at FSS locations have FSS Frequencies. The Duplex system is being phased out except at the most remote VORs.

Checkride Question/Answers8
1. Define the following: Squawk, Squawk VFR and Ident, Stop Squawk, Squawk alt, Stop squawk altitude AIM Chapter 4
2. When would a code other than 1200 be used? AIM Chapter 4


Air traffic controllers, both civil and military, will use the following phraseology when referring to operation of the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System. Instructions by ATC refer only to Mode A/3 or Mode C operation and do not affect the operation of the transponder on other modes.
1. SQUAWK (number) --Operate radar beacon transponder on designated code in Mode A/3
2. IDENT -- Engage the "IDENT" feature of the transponder.
3. SQUAWK (number) and IDENT -- Operate transponder on specified code in Mode A/3 and engage the "IDENT" feature.
4. SQUAWK STANDBY -- Switch transponder to standby position
5. SQUAWK LOW/NORMAL -- Operate transponder on low or normal sensitivity as specified. Transponder is operated in "NORMAL" position unless ATC specifies "LOW", ("ON" is used instead of "NORMAL" as a master control label on some types of transponders.)
6. SQUAWK ALTITUDE --Activate MODE C with automatic altitude reporting.
7. STOP ALTITUDE SQUAWK --Turn off altitude reporting switch and continue transmitting MODE C framing pulses. If your equipment does not have this capability, turn off MODE C.
8. STOP SQUAWK (mode in use) --Switch off specified mode.
9. STOP SQUAWK --Switch off transponder
10. SQUAWK MADAY -- Operate transponder in the emergency position (Mode A Code 7700 for the civil transponder.
11. SQUAWK VFR --Operate radar beacon transponder on code 1200 in the MODE A/3, or other appropriate VFR code.
AIM 6-11; 6-31; Assigned by ATC

a. When a distress or urgency condition is encountered, the pilot of an aircraft with a coded radar beacon transponder, who desires to alert a ground radar facility, should squawk Mode 3/A, Code 7700/emergency and MODE C altitude reporting and then immediately establish communications with the ATC facility.
b. Radar facilities are equipped so that Code 7700 normally triggers an alarm or special indicator at all control positions. Pilots should understand that they might not be within a radar coverage area. Therefore, they should continue squawking Code 7700 and establish radio communications as soon as possible.


a. If a pilot of an aircraft with a coded radar beacon transponder experiences a loss of two-way radio capability he should:
1, Adjust his transponder to reply on MODE A/3, Code 7700 for a period of 1 minute.
2. Then change to Code 7600 and remain on 7600 for a period of 15 minutes or the remainder of the flight, whichever comes first.
3. Repeat steps (1) and (2) as practicable.
b. The pilot should understand that he may not be in an area of radar coverage.

Checkride Question/Answers9
1. FAR 91.215 When is altitude reporting capability required
2. Maximum airspeed below 10,000' FAR 91.117


1. 91.215 ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment and use.
(b) All airspace. No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(5) of this section, unless that aircraft is equipped with an operable coded radar beacon transponder ...and that aircraft is equipped with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment, having a Mode C capability...
(1) All aircraft in Class A or Class B airspace;
(2) All aircraft. In all airspace within 30 nautical miles of a Class B airspace primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000' MSL.
(4) All aircraft.
(i) In the airspace of an Class C airspace, and
(ii) In all airspace above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class C airspace, upward to 10,000' MSL, and (5) All aircraft...
(i) In all airspace of the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia:
(6) At and above 10,000' MSL and below the floor of a positive control area, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500' AGL; and
(ii) In the airspace from the surface to 10,000' MSL within a 10 nautical mile radius of any airport listed in Appendix D of this part excluding the airspace below 1,200" AGL outside the airport traffic area for that airport. (There are no such airports in the Bay Area.
(c) Transponder on operation. While in the airspace as specified in paragraph (b) of this section or in all controlled airspace, each person operating an aircraft equipped with an operable ATC transponder maintained in accordance with SEC. 91.413 of this part shall operate the transponder, including Mode C equipment if installed, and shall reply on the appropriate code or as assigned by ATC.

2. 91.117 Aircraft speed.
(a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000' MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than
200 knots. FAR 91.117

Checkride Question/Answers10

1. Maximum airspeed in an airport traffic area; below the base of a TCA. Class B or C airspace
2. Discuss the various combinations of light signals, green, red, white; steady or flashing. 91.125
3. What is the proper procedure for setting altimeter below 18,000'?


1. (b) Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within an airport traffic area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots.
(c) No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a terminal control area, or in a VFR corridor designated through a terminal control area, at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots.
15. 91.205 Powered civil aircraft with standard category U. S. airworthiness certificates: Instrument and equipment requirements.
(c) Visual flight rules (night). For VFR flight at night, the following instruments and equipment are required:
(2) Approved position lights.
(3) An approved aviation red or aviation white anti-collision light system...
(4) If the aircraft is operate for hire, one electric landing light.
(5) An adequate source of electrical energy....
(6) One spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind required, that are accessible to the pilot in flight.
FAR 91.209 Aircraft lights
No person may, during the period from sunset to sunrise...
(a) Operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights;
(b) Park or move an aircraft in, or in dangerous proximity to, a night flight operations area of an airport unless the aircraft -
(1) Is clearly illuminated;
(2) Has lighted position lights; or
(3) Is in a area which is marked by obstruction lights. (d) Operate an aircraft, required be equipped with an anti-collision light system... However, the anti-collision lights need not be lighted when the pilot in command determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to turn the lights off.

2. 91.125 ATC light signals.
Steady green Cleared for takeoff/land Flashing cleared to taxi/return
Steady red Stop/give way to aircraft Flashing taxi clear/don't land
Alternating red/green caution/caution Flashing white return to starting

3. 91.121 Altimeter settings
(a) Each person operating an aircraft shall maintain the cruising altitude or flight level of that aircraft, as the case may be, by reference to an altimeter that is set, when operating -
(1) Below 18,000' MSL, to -
(i) The current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft.;
(ii) If there is not station within the area prescribed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the current reported altimeter setting of an appropriate available station; or
(iii) In the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio, the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure; ...

Checkride Question/Answers11
1. When are position lights required______? What other equipment is required for night flight FAR 91.205C; 91.209
2. What are the minimum safe altitudes over congested area? _____ above and ______ horizontally. Other than congested _______above. Sparsely populated_______. FAR 91.119


1. 91.205 Powered civil aircraft with standard category U. S. airworthiness certificates: Instrument and equipment requirements.
(c) Visual flight rules (night). For VFR flight at night, the following instruments and equipment are required:
(2) Approved position lights.
(3) An approved aviation red or aviation white anti-collision light system...
(4) If the aircraft is operate for hire, one electric landing light.
(5) An adequate source of electrical energy....
(6) One spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind required, that are accessible to the pilot in flight.
FAR 91.209 Aircraft lights
No person may, during the period from sunset to sunrise...
(a) Operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights;
(b) Park or move an aircraft in, or in dangerous proximity to, a night flight operations area of an airport unless the aircraft -
(1) Is clearly illuminated;
(2) Has lighted position lights; or
(3) Is in a area which is marked by obstruction lights. (d) Operate an aircraft, required be equipped with an anti-collision light system... However, the anti-collision lights need not be lighted when the pilot in command determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to turn the lights off.

2. 91.119 Minimum safe altitudes: General.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft below the following altitudes:
(a) Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
(b) Over congested areas. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, an altitude of 1,000' above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000' of the aircraft.
(c) Over other than congested areas. An altitude of 500' above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500' to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

Checkride Question/Answers12

1. FAR 91.133 How can you obtain a clearance into a prohibited or restricted area?
2. Far 91.159 Mandatory VFR cardinal altitudes begin at what AGL altitude? What are the appropriate VFR altitudes above the foregoing altitude?
3. What are the basic VFR minimums above 10,000' FAR 91.155
4. Procedure for requesting VFR flight following from ATC.
5. How are VFR flight plans filed? Opened? Closed?


1. 91.133 Restricted and prohibited areas.
(a) No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area (designated in Part 73) contrary to the restrictions imposed, or within a prohibited area, unless that person has the permission of the using or controlling agency, as appropriate....

2. 91.159 VFR cruising altitude or flight level. Except while holding in a holding pattern of 2 minutes or less, or while turning, each person operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight more than 3,000' above the surface shall maintain the appropriate altitude or flight level prescribed below, unless otherwise authorized by ATC:
(a) when operating below 18,000' MSL and -
(1) On a magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees, any odd thousand foot MSL altitude + 500'. (such as 3,500,5,500,
(2) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any even thousand MSL altitude + 500' (such as 4,500, 6,500, 8,500).

3. 91.155 Basic VFR weather minimums.
(a) Except as provided in Sections. 91.155(b0 and 91.157, no person may operate an aircraft under VFR when the flight visibility is less, or at a distance from clouds that is less, than that prescribed for the corresponding altitude in the following table:
More than 1,200' above the surface and at or above 10,000' MSL
Visibility Distance from clouds
5 statute miles 1,000' above 7,500)
1,000' below
1 mile horizontal

4. AIM Chapter 4

5. AIM Chapter 5 FARs

Checkride Question/Answers13

1. FAR 91.157, AIM Chapter 3 Section 2 What are the dimensions of Class D airspace? How is it depicted on a sectional? When must a clearance be given for operations in Class D airspace?

1. 91.157 Special VFR weather minimums.
(a) Except as provided in Sec. 93.113k, when a person has received an appropriate ATC clearance, the special weather minimums of this section instead of these contained in Sec. 91.155 apply to the operation of that aircraft by that person in a control zone under VFR.
(b) No person may operate an aircraft in Class D airspace under VFR except clear of clouds.
(c) No person may operate an Class D airspace under VFR unless flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile.
(d) No person may take off or land an any airport in Class D airspace under VFR -
(1) Unless ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 statute mile; or
(2) If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, unless flight visibility during landing or takeoff is at least 1 statute mile.
(e) No person may operate an aircraft... in Class D airspace under the special weather minimums of this section, between sunrise and sunset...unless:
(1) That person meets the applicable requirements for instrument flight under Part 61 of this chapter; and
(2) the aircraft is equipped as required in Sec. 91.205(d)

Class D Airspace
a. Class D airspaces are regulatory in nature and established as controlled airspace. They extend upward from the surface and terminate at 2500' AGL. Class D airspace is based on a primary airport but may include one or more airports and is normally a circular area within a radius of 4.1 nautical miles around the primary airport, except that it may include extensions necessary to include instrument departure and arrival paths.
b. Some basic requirement for designating Class D airspace is communications and weather observation reporting:
1. Communications capability with aircraft which normally operate within the Class D airspace must exist down to the runway surface of the primary airport. Communications may be either direct from the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the control zone or by rapid relay through other communications facilities which are acceptable to that ATC facility.
3. Federally certificated weather observers take hourly and special weather observations at the primary airport in the control zone during the times Class D is designated. The required weather observations must be forwarded expeditiously to the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the control zones.
c. Class D airspace is depicted on charts (for example on the Sectional Charts the Class D airspace is outlined by a broken blue line). If Class D airspace is effective only during certain hours of the day (a part-time Class D airspace as prescribed in the regulation) it will be reflected on the charts. AIM 3-2; and 4-84

Checkride Question/Answers14

1. What are the common transponder codes? AIM FARs


1200 VFR, 7700 emergency, 7600 no radio, 7500 hijack
a. the ATCRBS, sometimes referred to as secondary surveillance radar, consists of three main components:
1. Interrogator. Primary radar relies on a signal transmitted from the radar antenna site and for this signal to be reflected or "bounced back" from an object (such as an aircraft). this reflected signal is then displayed as a "target" on the controller's radarscope. In the ATCRBS, the interrogator, a ground based radar beacon transmitter-receiver, scans in synchronism with the primary radar and transmits discrete radio signals which repetitiously request all transponders, on the mode being used, to reply. The replies received are then mixed with the primary returns and both are displayed on the same radar scope.
2. Transponder. This airborne radar beacon transmitter-receiver automatically receives the signals from the interrogator and selectively replies with a specific pulse group (code) only to those interrogations being received on the mode to which it is set. These replies are independent of, and much stronger than a primary radar return.
3. Radarscope. The radarscope used by the controller displays returns from both the primary radar system and the ATCRBS. These returns, called targets, are what the controller refers to in the control and separation of traffic.
b. the job of identifying and maintaining identification of primary radar targets is a long and tedious task for the controller. Some of the advantages of ATCRBS over primary radar area:
1. Reinforcement of radar targets
2. Rapid target identification
3. Unique display of selected codes.
c. a part of the ATCRBS ground equipment is the decoder. This equipment enables the controller to assign discrete transponder codes to each aircraft under his control. Normally only one code will be assigned for the entire flight. Assignments are made by the ARTCC computer on the basis of the National Beacon Code Allocation Plan. The equipment is also designed to receive MODE C altitude information from the aircraft.
AIM Chapter 4 is too long and should be read and studied from the AIM

Checkride Question/Answers15

1. What are the basic VFR minimums between 1,200 and 10,000' MSL? FAR 91.155
2. What are the basic VFR minimums for flight within 1200' of the surface in controlled airspace? Uncontrolled airspace day? Night? FAR 91.155
3. Purpose for the following frequencies:
121.5, 122.0, 122.9, 122.8, 122.2, 122.95, 122.75, 122.85
4. Purpose of transponder codes?.


1. More than 1,200 feet above the surface but less than 10,000' MSL.
Visibility Distance from clouds
Within controlled
airspace: 3 statute miles
500' below
1,000' above
2,000' horizontal
Outside controlled
airspace: 1 statute mile 500' below
1,000' above
2,000' horizontal

Night 3 statute miles
500' below
1,000' above
2,000' horizontal

2. 1200 feet or less above the surface-
Within controlled
airspace: 3 statute miles
500' below
1,000" above
2,000' horizontal
Outside controlled
airspace - Day 1 statute mile Clear of clouds

Night 3 statute miles
500' below
1,000' above
Exception 2,000' horizontal
Unless within 1/2 mile of airport and in pattern.

3. AIM 4-8
121.5 Emergency frequency which is monitored by ATC and airlines.
122.0 Flight Watch for weather enroute
122.9 Multicom CTAF frequency at airports not having UNICOM.
122.8 One of several UNICOM CTAF frequencies where local FBO may answer.
122.2 Almost universal FSS frequency to be tried if no more discrete frequency is unknown.
122.95 Universal UNICOM frequency at airports with ATC tower.
122.75 Aircraft to aircraft frequency
122.85 Aircraft to aircraft frequency(SPECIAL AUTHORIZED USE ONLY)
4. AIM Chapter 6

Checkride Question/Answers16

1. The procedure for requesting a DF steer.
2. What is the lower limit of controlled airspace in the area not tinted?. What kinds of airspace is from the surface to 1200' AGL?
3. What is the upper limit of the controlled airspace depicted on the sectional?
4. How does a restricted area differ from a warning area?


1. Establish contact with FSS. Usually the FSS will refer an aircraft to a radar facility in an actual emergency. A non-DF FSS has emergency capability to assist pilots by talking the pilot through the steps for a VOR fix or even a series of them as required.

If the aircraft is below/beyond radar coverage but in radio contact the DF may be the best option. Rancho FSS near Sacramento has DF capability. Indicate purpose for request of DF, practice, misplaced, finding airport, etc. Follow procedure instructions exactly. Altitude is limiting factor for DF range. Most common fault is failure to set heading indicator to correspond with compass.

Typical procedure:
1. FSS will assign discrete frequency and go through a list of questions covering, flight conditions, altitude, heading, fuel on board, souls on board, last known position, VOR capability, etc. (It is essential that all assigned headings be flown precisely to insure accuracy.)
2. Pilot will be told to key microphone for 5-10 seconds without speaking and then give aircraft identification. (The DF (direction finder) will give FSS line from station to aircraft.)
3a. Pilot will be given heading to fly down the "beam" to the FSS station and airport.
3b. Pilot will be given heading to fly at right angles to "beam" and told to fly that heading(a given number of seconds) until told to key his radio again. Using this information the FSS can easily compute how long it will take the pilot to fly to the station.
3c. The FSS will give directions as to selection of VOR frequency with nearest to 90 degree intersection. Pilot will be told to set frequency, ident, center needle FROM, and give radial from VOR. FSS will draw intersection of "beam" and VOR radial for aircraft location. Heading will be suggested and repeated "beam"/VOR readings can be used to determine track. Aircraft can be directed by FSS to any location. FSS personnel are required to be proficient in these procedures and appreciate the opportunity to practice.

2. All airspace that is not bordered by magenta shaded line makes up an instrument enroute transition area. Transition areas are designed to contain IFR operations in controlled airspace.

3. Sectional legend. 18,000'
4. Warning areas are in international waters so only U. S. aircraft are subject to flight restrictions.

Checkride Question/Answers17
1. Who is notified in the event of an overdue aircraft believed to have had an accident?
2.Why does the nose of a Cessna drop when power is reduced?
3. What paper work is required for performing preventive maintenance?
4. When must an aircraft incident be reported?
5. What is required in the cockpit before hand propping?
6. How is the engine operated with a constant speed propeller?
7. Why do aircraft have flaps?


1. Immediate notification of the NTSB field office is required.

2. Reduction of power reduces downwash over elevators and reduces elevator authority.

3. Dated, signed, with type of certificate of person approving and description of work in aircraft logbooks.

4. Incidents must be reported only when requested by the FAA or NTSB.

5. A competent pilot must be at the controls.

6. Throttle controls power via manifold pressure. Prop controls rpm.

7. Flaps allow steeper approaches without increase in airspeed.

Checkride Question/Answers18

1. When does Class D airspace exist?
2. What are SVFR minimums?
3.. Float type carburetors are subject to sticking. What could you do in event of sudden engine stoppage?
4. What are symptoms of carburetor ice?
5. What is needed to have structural icing?
6. What physical symptom occurs in a pilot suffering from emotional tension, anxiety, or fear?
7. What is the meaning of VHF/DF in the A/FD?
8. How do you check the operation of the ELT?
9. What communications is required at all tower-controlled airports.
10, What advantage is fuel injection to carburetors in regard to icing.
11. What minimum equipment is required for Class B operations.
12. At high-density altitude an magneto check is o.k. … C.H. causes engine roughness. Why.
13. With carburetor ice, which comes first drop in rpm or engine roughness?
14, How is the mixture of air and fuel affected by C.H.?
15. How soon must the NTSB be informed of substantial damage to an aircraft.
16. Who is responsible for seeing that proper maintenance records are kept in the logbooks?
17. What wreckage movement is allowed in an aircraft accident?

1. Only when the control tower is operating.
2. SVFR clearances cannot be issued if visibility is less than one mile.
3. Drastically lean the mixture. (Worked for me.)
4. There will be a gradual drop in RPM. Engine roughness occurs later.
5. Visible moisture is required for structural icing.
6. Hyperventilation (Rapid shallow breathing)
7. The facility (FSS) has ability to use direction finding as a method of aircraft location.
8. If there is no auxiliary switch, you should tune your radio to 121.5 prior to shutdown.
9. Two way communication with ATC is required for landings or takeoff.
10. Fuel injection systems are not considered susceptible to icing.
11. Two way communications, transponder and altitude encoder
12. Check mixture
13. Drop in rpm comes before roughness at the onset of carburetor ice.
14. Mixture becomes richer.
15. For substantial damage to an aircraft the NTSB must be informed immediately.
16. The owner or operator is responsible for the records kept in the aircraft logbooks.
17. Wreckage may be moved only to prevent further damage.

 Checkride Question/Answers19
1. How can you adapt eyes to night conditions?
2. How is night defined?
3. How can you identify the taxiway edge lights?
4.What rotating beacon indicates a military airport?
5. What light signal from the tower is a clearance to land?
6. How does the pilot set medium intensity lights?
7. What flight rule exists in flying a VASI equipped runway?
8. How can you visually tell if the airport is below VFR minimums?
9. When should position lights be displayed by aircraft in the continental U.S.?
10. What are VFR night operation fuel requirements
11. How can you train yourself to see better at night?
12. What causes northerly turning error in a compass?
13. What should the compass during taxiing do?
14. In a level standard rate turn for 360 degrees when will the compass be most accurate?
15. In the southern hemisphere how would the compass indicate when a standard rate turn is initiated to the right from a 360 heading?
16. Regardless of hemisphere what should a compass indicate in a smooch standard rate turn to the left or right?

1. Avoid bright lights 30 minutes before flying. (FAA answer but not the best answer)
2. Night is the time from the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
3. Taxiway edge lights are omni-directional blue lights.
4. Military rotating beacons use a green flash followed by two quick white flashes.
5. A steady green light is a clearance to land.
6. Medium intensity lights are set by a pilot by seven clicks followed by five clicks.
7.lAn aircraft must remain at or above the VASI glide slope.
8. An airport-rotating beacon operating in daylight is indicative that conditions are less than VFR.
9. Position lights should operate from sunset to sunrise.
10. Night VFR fuel requirements are to destination and then fly normal cruise for 45 minutes.
11. Avoid looking directly at a particular spot. Scan to use your peripheral vision.
12 Northerly turn error is the worst of the dip errors caused by the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field. The dip is to the low side of the turn.
13. During taxi the magnetic compass swing freely and indicate appropriate headings.
14. East and West
15. In the southern hemisphere the compass initially indicates a turn to the right. In the northern hemisphere it indicates a turn to the left.
16. Compass would indicate approximately the correct headings initially.

Checkride Question/Answers20

1. Where are most PIREPs given?
2. How many SVFR aircraft can operate in Class D airspace?
3. What can make all SVFR aircraft either leave the airspace or land?
4. What is altimeter setting to use prior to takeoff if none is available?
5. What direction is a magnetic heading of 135 degrees using compass direction terms?
6. What is required for advection fog to go from sea to land?
7. How is the weight of unusable fuel and un-drainable oil figured?
8. When is it necessary to plan an alternate course of action for a flight?
9.Why a constant-speed propeller?
10.Why does an aircraft nose down with reduction of power?
11.When is P-factor in all its forms having the greatest effect?
12 What must a pilot require of passengers regarding the use of seat belts?
13. For takeoff/landing proficiency with passengers what are the requirements?
14. What is the aircraft air to air frequency?
15. What is the frequency for aircraft weather only?
16. What form is used in contacting an FSS?

1. Most PIREPs are given in the southern plains of the U.S.
2. As many SVFR aircraft as ATC feels it can handle.
3. The arrival or departure of a single IFR aircraft will clear the airspace of all other aircraft, unless SVFR aircraft all accept avoidance responsibility.
4. Use airport elevation to set altimeter.
5. Southeast.
6. Advection fog will appear over land only through the influence of wind.
7. Unusable fuel and undrainable oil are part of the aircraft empty weight.
8. Any flight from the vicinity of the airport must include an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
9. A constant-speed propeller let you chose pitch for most efficient operation.
10. Elevator effectiveness depends on airflow over it. Reducing power reduces airflow and effective downward pressure of the elevator. This allows the nose to fall.
11. P-factor is the strongest at high power and high angles of attack.
12. The pilot must notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing. They must be informed as to how to release the belts
13 Takeoffs and landings must be from a full stop, three within the past 90 days. The requirement is the same for day or night. However, fulfilling the night requirement satisfies the day requirement while the day requirement does not fulfill the night requirement.
14. 122.75 is the only general use air to air frequency; and, 122.85 is an air to air rescue/search frequency; 123.4 is an air to air flight test frequency; and, 123.025 is air to air for helicopters.
15. 122.0 is the Flight Watch weather frequency. They have a HiWAS frequency in the California area of 135.7, which can be used if 122.0 does not work. 122.0 is nation wide but each major FSS has a different HiWAS frequency.
16. FSS call-up begins by calling the FSS as ---Radio, aircraft identification, frequency listening on…over.

Checkride Question/Answers21

1. What form is used to contact Flight Watch?
2. What form is used in initial call-up to a radar facility?
3. What frequency should you use when a part-time tower closes?
4. What should you do regarding ATC instructions?
5. When should a piston engine not be leaned for high-density altitude departures?
6. When can the application of carburetor heat be ineffective? (2 answers)
7. What is the effect of lighting on landing descents?
8. On a heading of 176 degrees, what would be an appropriate VFR altitude above 3000' AGL
9. Below 3000' AGL how do your conform with the hemispheric rule?
10. What is a lowest altitude you are ever allowed to fly?
11. What is the minimum cloud clearance allowed in Class B airspace?
12. How is night fuel requirements different from day fuel requirements?
13. How is a clearance different from permission?
14. What prior approval is required before entering an Alert Area?
15. What is the minimum altitude for aerobatic flight?

1. Initial call-up is aircraft identification and the name of the nearest VOR. This enables the specialist to select the most appropriate radio to use.
2. Initial call-up to a radar facility is the name of the facility, aircraft identification and…over. This gives the specialist time to make all the decisions as to his work load etc. that makes it possible for him to accept you.
3. When the tower closes the CTAF is the tower frequency.
4. If the instruction has urgency…do it and then ask questions. Otherwise, read it back for confirmation; or ask for clarification. You always have the emergency right to do what you want.
5. A turbo-charged engine should not be leaned for departures.
6. 1. Where there is no ice in the carburetor. 2. If the engine is too cool to produce adequate heat.
7. Bright lights tend to make pilots descend too soon. Dim lights tend to keep pilots higher.
8. You can't say since magnetic courses determine hemispheric rule.
9. You can't follow the rule below 3000 AGL since it does not apply.
10. You can only fly so low as will allow a safe landing.
11. You must remain clear of clouds.
12. Night requires an additional 15-minute reserve beyond initial destination.
13. The FAA can grant a clearance but cannot give permission.
14. No prior approval is required for flight into an Alert Area. Caution is required.
15. No aerobatic flight can take place below 1500' AGL.

Checkride Question/Answers22
1. What is required in order to fly in formation with another aircraft?
2. What special vision is used at night for better collision avoidance?
3. What is the METAR code for a calm wind?
4. What airspace requires only prior contact with ATC before entry?
5. At what times is Class D airspace effective?
6. When is two-way radio communications with ATC required for pattern operations?
7. What is indicated when the rotating beacon is operational during daytime?
8. What are the cloud clearance and visibility requirements of SVFR?
9. What directions and speeds are used for winds aloft forecasts?
10. How would you describe hypoxia?
11. What is the basic collision avoidance used in Alert Areas?
12. What instruments are affected by loss of pitot tube and static air?
13. What three aspects of the airplane are affected by density altitude?
14. What atmospheric conditions reduce aircraft performance?
15. Define density altitude.
16. If altimeter settings are different by .70 what will be the difference in altitude?
17. When can a pilot ignore ATC?

1. Only by prior arrangement can two aircraft fly in formation.
2. Night scanning is best when using peripheral vision off center from normal vision. Small sectors only.
3. 0000 is the metar code for calm wind.
4. Class C requirement is only the establishment of radio contact. This is accomplished when ATC addresses the aircraft by its alpha numeric name?
5.Class D airspace is effective only when the tower is open.
6. Two-way communications is required with all towers for takeoffs and landings.
7. The towered airport is below VFR minimums. VFR aircraft are required to get SVFR clearances.
8. Aircraft on SVFR clearances are required to remain clear of clouds and have one mile flight visibility.
9. Winds aloft are given relative to true north in knots.
10. Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency.
11. Alert areas depend on the 'see and be seen' requirement.
12. Pitot and/or static air is required for altimeter, airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator.
13. Density altitude reduces engine power, wing lift, and propeller thrust.
14. High-density altitudes, high temperatures and humidity will reduce aircraft performance.
15. Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature.
16. Altitude will be changes plus/minus 70 feet.
17. By declaring an emergency a pilot can ignore ATC.

Checkride Question/Answers23
1. What piloting procedure is required for runways that have a visual approach slope indicator (VASI)? What is the definition of Vso?
2. When are radio communications with ATC required for landings or takeoff?
3. What are the minimum time limits and types for landings required of any pilot carrying passengers day or night?
4. While on final ATC gives you alternating red and green followed by flashing red lights. What to do?
5. At what point in time will landings count as 'night' landings?
6. What specific preflight must be done for flights away from the area?.
7. What is the meaning of a green light from ATC while you are airborne?
8. What is the minimum safe altitude for an aircraft anywhere?
9. What is the right-of-way criteria for multiple landing aircraft?
10 cP, mp and mT are the three air mass types. Arrange them in order from most moisture to least
11. Descriptive words for clouds come from the Latin. Cumulus = heaped; stratus - layered. What is cirrus?
12. The original 4-C's for emergencies have now become 5-C's. What are they?
13. For what reasons will a runway have a displaced threshold?
14. When does an aircraft produce the worst wake vortices?
15. When is the AIM recommended base to final turn made?
16. Where in the pattern should an aircraft begin its descent for landing?
17. CCR has a Class-D radius of 3.1 nautical miles and a height of 2500'.
18. When does the 200-kt speed become effective?
19. Why do mountain waves and rotor clouds remain for periods of time?
20. What is the non-control information under continuous broadcast at towered airports called?
21. How do you know you are below the glide slope of a three color VASI?
22. What cam you do to improve engine cooling in a climb?
23. What instrument can first indicate that you have too little oil?
24. Victor airways can extend from 700' to 18,000'. What is lowest cloud clearance below 10.000'?
25. When must you give a detailed report of an emergency?

1.All pilots, IFR and VFR are required to maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
2.Vso is the stall speed of an aircraft configured for minimum steady flight in the landing configuration
3. Radio communications are required at all tower-controlled airports unless otherwise authorized.
4. Pilots are required to have had in the past 90-days three night full stop landings for night.
5. Red and green means exercise extreme caution…flashing red means unsafe for landing.
6. Only landings that take place between one hour after sunset and one hour before sunrise count as night landings.
7. The pilot must determine runway lengths or intended used and aircraft performance requirements.
8. A solid green light means you are cleared to land.
9. Required altitude must be sufficient to allow emergency landing without hazard to persons or property.
10. The lowest aircraft has the right of way.
11. mT (maritime tropical ) has most moisture, cP (continental polar) has the least.
12. Cirrus means a wisp of hair and describes clouds found above 16,500'.
13. 5-C's are climb, communicate, confess, comply and conserve.
14. Thresholds are displaced to reduce noise footprints and to increase obstacle clearance.
15 Worst vortex is created when slow, heavy, and clean.
16. AIM recommends that base to final turn be made so as to give a final approach of 1/4 mile.
17. AIM recommends beginning descent from abeam the numbers. Local authorities may say when turning base.
18. The 200 kt speed limit is required when below 2500' AGL of primary airport and four miles (91.117b)
19. Waves and rotors persist only because the air in the vicinity is so stable. Unstable conditions would dissipate them.
20. ATIS or Automatic Terminal Information Service
21. Red light indicates below the glide slope.
22. Reducing rate of climb and increasing airspeed will improve cooling in a climb.
23. Low oil is first shown on the oil temperature gauge.
24. VFR cloud clearance on airways below 10,000' require 500' below; 1000' above; and, 2000' to the side.
25. A report of an emergency is required of a pilot only by ATC request.

Checkride Question/Answers24

1. What are the parameters of MVFR?
2. What precaution should be taken if the magneto check is inadvertently placed on OFF?
3. What is the weight of a heavy and a large aircraft?
4. What are the visual signs of a microburst?
5. What is the relationship between horizontal lift and centrifugal force in a coordinated turn?
6. When making a 360-degree turn when will the compass read most accurately?
7. Under what conditions should you advise the tower of your position when ready for departure?
8. When is lift equal to weight?
9. Which of the four forces affecting flight acts parallel to the flight path?
10. When does an airport rotating beacon operate during daylight hours?
11. What is always true about wind direction when you fly across a front?
12. What is the meaning of the amber light from a tri-color VASI?
13. What does the VHD/DF use as a means to locate an aircraft?
14. What is the recommended height AGL for aircraft over national wildlife refuges?
15. What inflight advisory warns of severe icing and thunderstorms?
16. How come in a forward slip the plane is going sideways, and in a side slip the plane is going forward?

1. Marginal VFR has ceiling between one and three thousand feet with visibility between three and five statute miles.
2. The engine will probably backfire if the throttle is not completely out. (off)
3. Heavy is 255,0000 pounds and up; large is from 41,000 up to 255,000 pounds.
4. Visual signs of a microburst are heavy rain virga, and a ring of blowing dust.
5. In a coordinated turn horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal.
6. A compass will read most accurately when passing through 090 and 270 when turning
7. You should always advise the tower when you are making an intersection departure.
8. Lift is equal to weight only in horizontal flight.
. Airport beacons operate during daylight hours when the airport is below VFR minimums.
11. Winds on opposite sides of a weather front are always from different directions.
12. The tri-color VASI has red for low, green for on path and amber for above glide path.
13. The Very High Frequency/Direction Finder uses a oscilloscope and a direction finding sensor to draw an electronic line to the aircraft VHF transmitter. The pilot is told to key the microphone without talking for a few seconds until the signal is located. Then various headings can be assigned to locate the aircraft with VOR radials or using the 1:60 rule to give the pilot time to fly to station.. System is nearly obsolete.
14. Altitude above both national and state refuges is 2000' AGL. Violators can be prosecuted.
15. The convective SIGMET warns of thunderstorms.
16.The sideslip was named first. In a sideslip, you change course to the side. They needed name for
the other slip where you don't change course, so they called it a forward slip, since you don't change the
forward direction of travel.

Checkride Question/Answers25

1. Where do you find your aircraft's operating limitations?
2. How are VFR night approaches different than approaches made in day light?
3. What is the primary hazard of flying in freezing rain.
4. How do you look for traffic at night?
5. Why should automotive oil not be used in aircraft?
6. How do you indicate distress to intercepting military aircraft?
7. What does the presence of silicon indicate in an aircraft oil analysis?
8. When can an aircraft plan to fly into Class Bravo airspace without a transponder.
9. How long can a non-pressurized flight continue above below 14,000 feet without oxygen

1. Limitations are found in the current, FAA-approved flight manual, manual material, markings, and placards.
2. They're not.
3. Freezing rain can bring an aircraft down by causing clear icing on all aircraft surfaces.
4. At night you should look to the side of what you are trying to see and scan slowly.
5. The higher cylinder temperatures of aircraft will cause automotive additives to cause hot-spots, etc
6. The flashing of all available lights is a distress signal to intercepting military aircraft.
7. Silicon comes from airborne contaminants. In aircraft oil it indicates the air filter needs replacement.
8. Non-transponder aircraft can enter Class Bravo airspace by giving ATC one-hour notice.
9. The FAR inversely allow flight above 12,500 for one-half hour and require crew to use oxygen above 14,000.

 Checkride Question/ without Answers26
1. If convicted of a motor vehicle action, when must you notify the FAA in writing?
2. When must you notify the FAA of an address change?
3. What are the currency requirements for carrying passengers?
4. What is the class and expiration date of your medical?
5. What is required for you to be PIC?
6. What are the required inspections for this aircraft as used?
7. When is it legal to fly without operating navigational lights?
8. What is the lowest VFR altitude than can be flown over a 2850-foot hill?
9. What are the minimum fuel requirements for VFR?
10. What are the flight clearances required about a filled stadium?
11. When must passengers wear seatbelts?
12. What is required information for a non-local flight?
13. What is the flight time limit for alcohol consumption?
14. What are the 'always required on aircraft' documents?
15. Who is the responsible party for determining airworthiness?
16. What is the legality of a straight-in to a non-tower airport?
17. What right of way is given by a clearance to taxi to a runway?
18. How do you depart following a Lear jet?
19. What are the symptoms of CO poisoning?
20. What non-charted frequencies are monitored by an FSS?
21. How do you find what frequency to use when the tower closes?
22. How do you determine if a transponder is required at a given airport?
23. What are VFR minimums for flight into a Class C airport?
24. At 1600 feet AGL over a non-towered airport, what are the VFR minimums?
25. Describe communications requirements for all classes of airports?
26. How can you find all available information about an airport?
27. Where can you find all available frequencies on a sectional chart?
28. Why is a slip presumed to be safer than a skid?
29. What is the difference between Va and Vref?
30. Why do older American planes tend to turn left while English planes turn right?
31. If you apply too much left rudder in a left turn where is the ball?
32. What is the basic spin recovery procedure for this aircraft?
33. What is aircraft fuel grade, capacity, useful and hourly consumption?
34. How do you clear a flooded engine?
35. What are minimum/maximum oil temperatures?
36. How do we know of the existence of carburetor ice?
37. How many fuel sumps does the aircraft have?
38. How do you determine true airspeed?
39. What is meant by maximum demonstrated crosswind component of this airplane?
40. Pick a temperature and airport and figure density altitude. What is required to takeoff over 50'?
41. Name as many V-speeds for this aircraft as you can. Now use the POH.
42. With us in the aircraft and full fuel, how much cabin weight remains to reach gross?

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