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Questions and Answers
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1. In what instances does controlled airspace start at ground level.
2. How is a airspace zone that does not allow Special VFR operations depicted on the Sectional?
3. What is Class A Airspace?
Class D Airspace
a. Class D airspace is regulatory in nature and established as controlled airspace. They extend upward from the surface and terminate 2500' AGL.
2. Class B Airspace
a. Class B Airspace consists of controlled airspace extending upward from the surface or higher to specified altitudes, within which all aircraft are subject to operating rules and pilot/equipment requirements specified in FAR 91....
3.  Class C Airspace
a. Class C airspace consists of controlled airspace extending upward from the surface or higher to specified altitudes, within which all aircraft are subject to operating rules and pilot and equipment requirements specified in FAR 91.

Prohibited Areas contain airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited...
a. Restricted Areas contain airspace identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions....
Warning Areas are airspace which may contain hazards to non-participating aircraft in international airspace.....
Alert Areas are depicted on aeronautical charts to inform non-participating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity....

2. AIM 4-85 e. Special VFR operations by fixed-wing aircraft are prohibited in some Class B airspace due to the volume of IFR traffic. A list of these control zones is contained FAR 93.113. They are also depicted on Sectional Aeronautical Charts with a note indicating No SVFR. San Francisco is such a control zone. Helicopters are an exception.

3. Class A Airspace
Positive Control Area is airspace so designated as positive control area in FAR 71.193. This area includes specified airspace within the coterminous U.S. from 18,000 feet to and including FL 600....

1. What pilot and aircraft capabilities are required for night special VFR operations?
2. How is Class D airspace depicted on a sectional.
3. How is an airport that offers airport advisory service (not UNICOM) depicted on the sectional?
4. If controlled airspace starts at a level other than (1) ground, (2) 700' AGL, or (3) 1200' AGL how is the lower limit depicted on a sectional chart?

FAR 91.157e No person may operate an aircraft in Class C or D airspace under the special weather minimums of this section, between sunset and sunrise...unless:
(1) That person meets the applicable requirements for instrument flight under Part 61 of this chapter; and
(2) The aircraft is equipped as required in Sec. 91.205(d)
AIM 4-85 g. Special VFR operations by fixed-wing aircraft are prohibited between sunset and sunrise unless the pilot is instrument rated (current) and the aircraft is equipped for IFR flight. (Simply: IFR pilot and aircraft)

2. AIM Chapter 3 ...Class D airspace is indicated on aeronautical charts by the blue airport symbol with a dashed circle plus extensions.
AIM 3-2 shows 4.1 nautical mile radius circle up to but not including 2500'. See also AIM 4-52

a. the airport advisory area is the area within 10 statute miles of an airport where a control tower is not operating but where a FSS is located. At such locations, the FSS provides advisory service to arriving and departing aircraft. See AIM 4-8
a. It is not mandatory that pilots participate in the Airport Advisory Service program, but it is strongly recommended that they do. AIM

a. FSS's are allocated frequencies for different functions; for example, 122.0 MHz is assigned as En Route Flight Advisory Service (Flight Watch) frequency at selected FSS's. In addition, certain FSS's provide Airport Advisory Service on 123.6 MHz. Other FSS frequencies are listed in the Airport/Facility Directory. If you are in doubt as to what frequency to use, 122.2 MHz is assigned to the majority of FSS's as a common en route simplex frequency....
b. Certain VOR voice channels are being utilized for recorded broadcasts; i.e., ATIS, HIWAS, etc. These services and appropriate frequencies are listed in the Airport/Facility Directory. On VFR flights, pilots are urged to monitor these frequencies. When in contact with a control facility, notify the controller if you plan to leave the frequency to monitor these broadcasts.

4. Refer to latest San Francisco Sectional. Representative areas north of Ukiah as shown with overlapping blocked blue lines. Altitudes are along block borders or inside areas. Extends along the Pacific Coast line at 5000'. This negates the necessity of following the terrain at 1200'. and allows level daytime flight in these areas below the named altitudes with minimums of 1 mile and clear of clouds. IFR and MOA operations will be above this level.

1. What is the significance of daytime operation of an airport beacon?
2. Define and give actual V airspeeds for the aircraft you are using.
Define and give actual V airspeeds for the aircraft you are using.
3. What is the lower limit of controlled airspace in a transition area.
What is the purpose of a transition area? (No longer mentioned in AIM)
4. Discuss the color coding on the airspeed indicator.

d. In Class D airspace, operations of the airport beacon during the hours of daylight often indicates that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. ATC clearance in accordance with FAR 91 (SVFR) is required for landing, takeoff and flight in the traffic pattern.

Pilots should not rely solely on the operation of the airport beacon to indicate if weather conditions are IFR or VFR. At some locations with operating control towers, ATC personnel turn the beacon on or off when controls are in the tower. At many airports the airport beacon is turned on by a photoelectric cell or timer and ATC personnel cannot control them.

There is no regulatory requirement for daylight operation and it is the pilot's responsibility to comply with proper preflight planning as required by FAR 91.103. (No student SVFR)

2. Vso = the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration; 35-40 kts.
Vs = the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which airplane is controllable; 40-50 kts.
Vx = speed for best angle of climb; 60 kts. This is the speed that gets you over the 50' FAA tree. Best altitude over distance.
Vy = speed for best rate of climb; 68 kts. this is the speed that gets you highest in a given amount of time.
Vno = means maximum structural cruising speed. This is where the green and orange arcs of the airspeed indicator meet.
Va = design maneuvering speed; 95 kts. This is the speed below which the aircraft is "guaranteed" not to fold, spindle, or mutilate with abrupt control movements.
Vne = never exceed speed. This is the red line speed of the airspeed indicator.

a. Transition Areas are designated to contain IFR operations in controlled airspace. above uncontrolled airspace, during portions of the terminal IFR operation and while transitioning between the terminal and en route environment.
b. Transition Areas are controlled airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface when designated in conjunction with an airport for which an instrument approach procedure has been prescribed (magenta shaded borders; or from 1,200 feet or more above the surface when designated in conjunction with airway route structures or segments (rarely indicate by blue borders any longer). Unless specified otherwise, Transition Areas terminate at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

4. White arc - Normal flap operation speed range.
Yellow arc - Speed range where in turbulence reduction is required
Red line - Never exceed speed

1. Above what altitude is VFR flight prohibited? What is required above this altitude.
91.135 Positive control areas and route segments. (Above 18,000')
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft within a positive control area or a positive control route segment designated in part 71 of this chapter unless the aircraft is -
(1) Operated under IFR at a specific flight level assigned by ATC;
(2) Equipped with instruments and equipment required for IFR operations;
91.205 (b)Visual flight rules (day). For VFR flight during the day, the following instruments and equipment are required:
(1) Airspeed indicator.
(2) Altimeter
(3) Magnetic direction indicator
(4) Tachometer for each engine.
(5) Oil pressure gauge for each engine...
(7) Oil temperature gauge for each air cooled engine.
(8) Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine.
(9) Fuel gauge indicating the quantity of fuel in each tank.
(10) Landing gear position indicator...
(12) approved safety belt with approved metal-to metal-latching device for each occupant 2 years of age or older.
(13) approved shoulder harness for each front seat....
(14) An emergency locator transmitter, if required by .91.207
(c) Visual flight rules (night). floor VFR flight at night, the following instruments and equipment are required:
(1) Instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (b) of this section
(2) Approved position lights
(3) An approved aviation red or aviation white anti-collision lights
(5) An adequate source of electrical energy for all installed electrical and radio equipment
(6) One spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind required, that are accessible to the pilot in flight.
(d) Instrument flight rules. For IFR flight, the following instruments and equipment are required:
(1) Instruments and equipment specified in paragraph
(b) of this section, and, for night flight, instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) Two-way radio communications system and navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.
(3) Gyroscopic rate of turn indicator...
(4) Slip/skid indicator
(5) Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.
(6) A clock displaying hours, minutes, and seconds...
(7) Generator or alternator of adequate capacity
(8) Gyroscopic pitch and bank indicator...
(9) Gyroscopic direction indicator...
(e) Flight at and above 24,000' MSL....equipped with approved DME..
(3) Flown by a pilot rated for instrument flight; and
(4) Equipped, when in a positive control area, with -
(i) The applicable equipment specified in Sec. 91.215
( 91.215 ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment and use.
(b) (1) All aircraft. In Class A and Class B airspace...
(ii) A radio providing direct pilot/controller communication on the frequency specified by ATC for the area concerned....
(b) ...ATC may authorize deviation on a continuing basis or for an individual flight, as appropriate.

1. What items of information must preflight include as listed in FAR 91.103,
91.103 Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This information must include -
(a) ...a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be competed, and any known traffic delays of which the pilot in command has been advised by ATC;
(b) For any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the following takeoff and landing distance information:
(1) For civil aircraft for which an approved airplane...Flight Manual containing takeoff and landing distance data is requires, the takeoff and landing distance data contained therein; and
(2) For civil aircraft other than those specified in paragraph (b) (1) of this section, other reliable information appropriate to the aircraft, relating to aircraft performance under expected values of airport elevation and runway slope, aircraft gross weight, and wind and temperature.

a. to maintain IFR proficiency, pilots are urged to practice IFR procedures whenever possible, even when operating VFR. Some suggested practices include:
1. Obtain a complete preflight and weather briefing. Check the NOTAMS.
2, File a flight plan. This is an excellent low cost insurance policy. The cost is the time it takes to fill it out. The insurance includes the knowledge that someone will be looking for you if you become overdue at your destination.
3. Use current charts.
4. Use the navigation aids. Practice maintaining a good course-keep the needle centered.
5. Maintain a constant altitude which is appropriate for the direction of flight.
6. Estimate en route position times.
7. Make accurate and frequent position reports to the FSS's along your route of flight...

a. Categorical outlook terms describing general ceiling and visibility conditions for advanced planning purposes, are defined as follows:
1. LIFR (Low IFR--Ceiling less than 500 feet and/or visibility less than a mile.
2. IFR--Ceiling 500 to less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility 1 to less than 3 miles.
3. MVFR (Marginal VFR)--Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles inclusive.
4. VFR--Ceiling greater than 3,000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles; includes sky clear.
b. the cause of LIFR, IFR, or MVFR is indicated by either ceiling or visibility restrictions or both. the contraction "CIG" and/or weather and obstructions to vision symbols are used. If winds or gusts of 25 knots or greater are forecast for the outlook period, the word "WIND" is also includes for all categories including VFR.

1. What is the normal traffic direction at uncontrolled airports? What indicators are used to denote an irregular traffic direction? 91.127 AIM
Far 91.127; Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport: General rules
(a) Unless otherwise required by part 93 of this chapter, each person operating an aircraft on or in the vicinity of an airport shall comply with the requirements of this section and, if applicable, of Sec. 91.129
(b) Each person operating an aircraft to or from an airport without an operating control tower shall -
(1) In the case of an airplane approaching to land, make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot shall make all turns to the right;

a. Airport Operations Without Operating Control Tower
1. There is no substitute for alertness while in the vicinity of an airport. It is essential that pilots be alert and look for other traffic and exchange traffic information when approaching or departing an airport without an operating control tower. This is of particular importance since other aircraft may not have communication capability.
b. Communicating on a Common Frequency.
1. The key to communicating at an airport without an operating control tower is selection of the correct common frequency. the acronym CTAF which stands for Common Traffic Advisory Frequency, is synonymous with this program. A CTAF is a frequency designated for the purpose of carrying out airport advisory practices while operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower. The CTAF may be a UNICOM, MULTICOM, FSS, or tower frequency and is identified in appropriate aeronautical publications.
2. The CTAF frequency for a particular airport is contained in the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD etc...)Also, the CTAF frequency can be obtained by contacting any FSS. Use the appropriate CTAF, combined with a visual alertness and application of recommended good operating practices, will enhance safety of flight into and out of all uncontrolled airports.
c. Recommended Traffic Advisory Practices.
1. Pilots of inbound traffic should monitor and communicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from 10 miles to landing. Pilots of departing aircraft should monitor/communicate on the appropriate frequency from start-up, during taxi, and until 10 miles from the airport unless the FARs or local procedures require otherwise.
2. Pilots of aircraft conducting other than arriving or departing operations at altitudes normally used by arriving and departing aircraft should monitory/communicate on the appropriate frequency while within 10 miles of the airport unless required to do otherwise by the FAR's or local procedures. Such operations include parachute jumping/dropping, etc.
d. Airport Advisory Service Provided by an FSS.
1. Airport Advisory Service (AAS) is a service provided by an FSS physically located on an airport which does not have a control tower or where the tower is operated on a part-time basis. The CTAF for FSSs which provide this service will be disseminated in appropriate aeronautical publications. (123.6 at FSS only fields; usually tower frequency at FSS/tower fields)

a. At those airports without an operating control tower, a segmented circle visual indicator system, if installed, is designed to provide traffic pattern information. The segmented circle system consists of the following components:
1. The segmented circle--Located in a position affording maximum visibility to pilots in the air and on the ground and providing a centralized location for other elements of the system.
2. The wind direction indicator--A wind cone, wind sock, or wind tee installed near the operational runway to indicate wind direction, The large end of the wind cone/wind sock points into the wind as does the large end (cross bar) of the wind tee. In lieu of a tetrahedron and where a wind sock or wind cone is collocated with a wind tee, the wind tee may be manually aligned with the runway in use to indicate landing direction. These signaling devices may be located in the center of the segmented circle and may be lighted for night use. Pilots are cautioned against using a tetrahedron to indicate wind direction.
3. The landing direction indicator--A tetrahedron is installed when conditions at the airport warrant its use. It may be used to indicate the direction of landings and takeoffs. A Tetrahedron may be located at the center of a segmented circle and may be lighted for night operations. The small end of the tetrahedron points in the direction of landing. Pilots are cautioned against using the tetrahedron for any purpose other than as an indicator of landing direction. Further, pilots should use extreme caution when making runway selection by use of a tetrahedron in very light or calm wind conditions as the tetrahedron may not be aligned with the designated calm-wind runway. At airports with control towers, the tetrahedron is should only be referenced with the control tower is not in operation. Tower instructions supersede tetrahedron indications.
4. Landing strip indicators--Installed in pairs...and used to show the alignment of landing strips (runways)
5. Traffic pattern indicators--Arranged in pairs in conjunction with landing strip indicators and used to indicate the direction of turns when there is a variation from the normal left traffic pattern. (If there is not segmented circle installed at the airport, traffic pattern indicators may be installed on or near the end of the runway.)
b. Preparatory to landing at an airport without a control tower, or when the control tower is not in operation, the pilot should concern himself with the indicator for the approach end of the runway to be used. When approaching for landing, all turns must be made to the left unless a traffic pattern indicator indicates that turns should be made to the right. If the pilot will mentally enlarge the indicator for the runway to be used, the base and final approach legs of the traffic pattern to be flown immediately become apparent. Similar treatment of the indicator at the departure end of the runway will clearly indicate the direction of turn after takeoff.
c. when two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right of way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land, or to overtake that aircraft (FAR 91.113(f)).

At most airports and military air bases, traffic pattern altitudes for propeller-driven aircraft generally extend from 600 feet to as high as 1,500 feet above the ground.... Therefore, pilots of enroute aircraft should be constantly on the alert for other aircraft in the traffic patterns and avoid these areas whenever possible. Traffic pattern altitudes should be maintained unless otherwise required by the applicable distance from cloud criteria (FAR 91.155)
Right traffic indicators
At night or any other time, an orange light on top of the wind sock.
The white traffic pattern indicators at right angles to the landing strip indicators show that a right turn is required. Traffic pattern indicators may be installed on or near the end of the runway.

1. Discuss the structure of a typical Class B Airspace. Use VFR Area chart; AIM Chapter 3
AIM 3-2-2. Class B Airspace
a. Class B airspace consists of controlled airspace extending upward from the surface or higher to 10,000, within which all aircraft are subject to the operating rules and pilot/equipment requirements specified in FAR 91. Each location includes at least one primary airport around with the Class B airspace is located. Descriptions of Class B airspace can be found in FAR 71
b. Class B airspace is charted on Sectional, World Aeronautical, En route low Altitude, DOD FLIPS and Terminal Area Charts.
AIM 3-2-2. Class B OPERATION
a. Operating Rules and Pilot/Equipment Requirements.
REGARDLESS OF WEATHER CONDITIONS, AN ATC AUTHORIZATION IS REQUIRED PRIOR TO OPERATING WITHIN CLASS B AIRSPACE. Pilots should not request an authorization to operate within a Class B unless the requirements of FAR 91.215 and Far 91. 131 are met. Included among these requirements are:
1. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, aircraft must be equipped with an operable two-way radio capable of communication with ATC on frequencies for that terminal control area.
2. No person may takeoff or land a civil aircraft at an airport within a Class B airspace or operate within Class B airspace unless:
(a) pilot-in-command holds at least a private pilot certificate;
(b) aircraft is operated by a student pilot who has met the requirements of FAR 61.95 (endorsement requirement);
(c) the following primary airports, no person may takeoff or land a civil aircraft unless the pilot-in-command holds at least a private pilot certificate. SAN FRANCISCO ...
4. Each aircraft must be equipped as follows:
(a) two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on appropriate frequencies for that area.
(b) IFR operations, an operable VOR or TACAN receiver.
(c) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, an operable radar beacon transponder with automatic altitude reporting equipment.
(b) Flight Procedures.
1. IFR Flights. ...
2. VFR Flights must remain clear of clouds and 3 mile visibility.
(a) ARRIVING AIRCRAFT MUST OBTAIN AUTHORIZATION PRIOR TO ENTERING A Class B AND MUST CONTACT ATC ON THE APPROPRIATE FREQUENCY, and in relation to geographical fixes showing on local charts. Although a pilot may be operating beneath the floor of the Class B airspace on initial contact, communications, with ATC should be established in relation to the points indicated for spacing and sequencing purposes.
(b) Departing aircraft require a clearance to depart the Class B airspace and should advise the clearance delivery position of their intended altitude and route of flight. ATC will normally advise VFR aircraft when leaving the geographical limits of the Class B. Radar service is not automatically terminated unless specifically stated by the controller.
(c) Aircraft not landing or departing the primary airport may obtain ATC clearance to transit the Class B when traffic conditions permit and provides the requirements of FAR 91.1131 are met. Such VFR aircraft are encouraged, to the extent possible, to operate at altitudes above or below the TCA or transit through established VFR corridors,. Pilots operating in VFR corridors should use frequency 122.75 mHz for the exchange of information.
(d) VFR aircraft not cleared into the Class B airspace are cautioned against operating too closely to Class B boundaries, especially where the floor of the Class B is 3,000 feet or less or where VFR cruise altitudes are at or near the floor of higher levels. Observance of this precaution will reduce the potential for encountering an aircraft operating at Class B floor altitudes. Additionally, VFR aircraft are encouraged to utilize the VFR Planning Chart as a tool for planning flight in proximity to Class B airspace. Charted VFR Flyway Planning charts are published on the back of the existing VFR Terminal Area Charts.
c. ATC Clearances and Separation
AN ATC AUTHORIZATION IS REQUIRED TO ENTER AND OPERATE WITHIN CLASS B AIRSPACE. VFR pilots are provided sequencing and separation from other aircraft while operating within Class B airspace. (SEE AIM 4-16)
1. VFR aircraft are separated from all VFR/IFR aircraft which weight 19,000 pounds or less by a minimum of:
(a) Target resolution, or
(b) 500 feet vertical separation, or
(c) Visual separation.
2. VFR aircraft are separated from all VFR/IFR aircraft which weigh more than 42,000 pounds and turbojets by no less than:
(a) 1 and 1/2 miles lateral separation, or
(b) 500 feet vertical separation, or
(c) Visual separation.
3. This program is not to be interpreted as relieving pilots of their responsibilities to see and avoid other traffic operating in basic VFR weather conditions, to adjust their operations and flight path as necessary to preclude serious wake encounters, to maintain appropriate terrain and obstruction clearances, or to remain in weather conditions equal to or better than the minimums requires by FAR 91.155. Approach control should be advised and a revised clearance or instruction obtained when compliance with an assigned route, heading and/or altitude is likely to compromise pilot responsibility with respect to terrain and obstruction clearance, vortex exposure, and weather minimums.
4. ATC may assign altitudes to VFR aircraft that do not conform to FAR 91.159. "Resume Appropriate VFR Altitudes" will be broadcast when the altitude assignment is no longer needed for separation or when leaving the Class B airspace. Pilots must return to an altitude that conforms to FAR 91.159 as soon as practicable.

1. Define Class D Airspace as it exists around an airport with tower operating and closed. AIM 3-2-5; FAR 91.127, 91.129 MORE

Standard Dimensions ____radius, up to but not including ____
FAR 91.127, 91.129 AIM 3-2-5, 91.127 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport: General rules
(a) Unless otherwise required by part 93 of this chapter, each person operating an aircraft on or in the vicinity of an airport shall comply with the requirements of this section and, if applicable, of Sec. 91.129
(b) Each person operating an aircraft to or from an airport without an operating control tower shall -
(1) In the case of an airplane approaching to land, make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot shall make all turns to the right;
(3) In the case of an aircraft departing the airport, comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in part 93.
(c) Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within an airport traffic area except for the purpose of landing at, or taking off from, an airport within that area....
91.129 Operation at airports with operating control towers
(a) General. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, each person operating an aircraft to, from, or on an airport with an operating control tower shall comply with the applicable provisions of this section
(b) Communications with control towers operated by the United States.
No person may, within an airport traffic area operate an aircraft to, from, or on an airport having a control tower operated by the United States unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. However, if the aircraft radio fails in flight, the pilot in command may operate that aircraft and land if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums, visual contact with the tower is maintained, and a clearance to land is received....
(c) Communications with other control towers. No person may, within an airport traffic area, operate an aircraft to, from, or on an airport having a control tower that is operated by any person other than the United States unless - (Example: North Las Vegas has NFCT)
(1) If that aircraft's radio equipment so allows, two-way radio communications are maintained between the aircraft and the tower; or
(2) If that aircraft's radio equipment allows only reception from the tower, the pilot has the tower's frequency monitored.
(d) Minimum altitudes. when operating to an airport with an operating control tower, each pilot of -
(3) an airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing....
(e) Approaches. When approaching to land at an airport with an operating control tower, each pilot of -
(1) an airplane shall circle to the left; and ...
(f) Departures. No person may operate an aircraft taking off from an airport with an operating control tower expect in compliance with the following:
(1) Each pilot shall comply with any departure procedures established for that airport by the FAA.
(h) Clearances required. No person may, at an airport with an operating control tower, operate an aircraft on a runway or taxiway, or take off or land an aircraft, unless an appropriate clearance is received from ATC. A clearance to "taxi to" the takeoff runway assigned to the aircraft is not a clearance to cross that assigned takeoff runway or to taxi on that runway at any point, but is a clearance to cross other runways that intersect the taxi route to that assigned takeoff runway. A clearance to "taxi to" any point other than an assigned takeoff runway is a clearance to cross all runways that intersect the taxi route to that point.
(X) Readback required. Ground control is required to obtain a complete read back from the pilot of any taxi clearances which include the word "hold".

Class D Airspace
C. FAR 91.129 requires that unless otherwise authorized by ATC, a pilot operating to or from an airport served by an operating control tower must maintain two-way radio communications with the control tower while in the airport Class D surface area which includes the movement areas of that airport. FAR 91.117 sets the maximum indicated airspeed for operations in an airport traffic area at 200 knots.

Questions for discussion with instructor
1. How are License/medical expiration dates determined?.
2. How do you use the VOR to intercept a course?
3. How do you use the following Airspace?
Visibility/cloud clearances in controlled airspace,
Visibility/cloud clearances in uncontrolled airspace,
SVFR and in Class Delta airspace
4. What is the procedure for NTSB notification for incidents/accidents?
5. How do you plan a cross-country flight?
How to flight plan the navigation?
How to get and plan around weather?
How to get a weather briefing?
How to compute altitudes/fuel/ weight & balance?
6. What are the procedures for operating in, over and under Class C airspace
7. How do you compute TAS/ETA/GS while flying?
8. How will you plot a NEW course GS/ETA if diverted to another airport
9. Do you know definitions of IAS/CAS/TAS and how to find or calculate?
10. How do you interpret segmented circle and pattern arms at uncontrolled airports?
11. How do you perform slow flight and stalls under the hood?
12. How do you spiral down over point from altitude holding constant airspeed, turn radius, with 40 degree maximum bank and completing exercise in position for emergency landing?
13. How do you make "Constant altitude turns" at 45 degree bank?
14. What is the 'magic' of 1500 AGL while performing stalls?.
15. Can you use only 30 minutes to plan cross country to maximum range of aircraft?
16. What are the ways to file a flight plan?
17. 17. How do you reverse course during ground reference without getting out of position?
18. How do you used your checklist in an emergency with demonstrated forced landing?
19. Do you use an after takeoff checklist?
20.Did you know that at one time any turn to final may not be less than 1/4 mile from runway?
21. Can you make a normal touchdown beyond but within 400' of point selected?
22. Short field within 200'?
23. How do you use the aircraft manual? See Manual. 

1. How is your night scan different from the day scan?
2. When can pilots fly in formation?
3. How is Class D airspace indicated on a sectional?
4. If a satellite airport is in Class D airspace what is the communications requirement?
5. Define 'density altitude'.
6. Why is a propeller less efficient at high-density altitudes?
7. What is effect of both the static intake and pitot being clogged?
8. What minimum weather is required for SVFR in Class C, D or E?
9. What transponder capability is required in Class C airspace?
10. When can the minimum distance of 500 feet clear of persons be invalid?
11. What is the cause of advection fog?
12. If planning for immediate departure what FSS briefing should a pilot request?
13. Who is required to have oxygen in flights above l5,000 feet?
14. What is the significance of the Mode C circle around Class B airspace?
15. What causes compass deviation?
16. What is the required ground visibility for SVFR operations?
17. Where is the yoke when taxiing in quartering tailwinds?
18. Where is an airplane in relation to you when you see a white light and a rotating red light?
19. What is true of a low-pressure area or trough?
20. By what margin should an intense thunderstorm be avoided?
21. What piloting restrictions apply in landing at a VASI equipped runway?
22. What is the definition of Vso?
23. When must a pilot determine a destination runway length and the aircraft takeoff/landing capability?
24. What does 9999 mean with regard to wind?
25. Under what terms are winds aloft directions forecast?

1. At night you use peripheral vision and off-center viewing.
2. Formation flight requires prior agreement from all pilots.
3. Class D airspace is shown by a segmented blue circle.
4. ATC tower communications are required.
5. Density altitude is the pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature.
6. The thinner air reduces the amount of force the propeller is capable of producing.
7. The altimeter, airspeed indicator and VSI are giving false readings.
8. SVFR requires at least one mile visibility
9. In Class C airspace a transponder must be 4096 code with Mode C encoder.
10. 500 feet clearance from persons is not required for takeoffs or landings.
11. Advection fog is caused by cool, dense air moving inland from over the water.
12. An abbreviated briefing only if a standard briefing has been had in the past hour.
13. Above 15,000 feet everyone is requires to have oxygen.
14. Aircraft flying inside the circle must have a transponder with Mode C capability.
15. Deviation is caused by magnetic fields on the aircraft. A deviation chart is near the compass.
16. The airport must have one-mile visibility for SVFR flight operations.
17. In quartering tailwinds the yoke is held as though diving away from the wind.
18. You are looking at the tail and the aircraft is moving away from you.
19. A low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air.
20. Thunderstorms should be avoided by 25 miles.
21. Every approach must be at an altitude on or above the glide slope of a runway equipped with a VASI.
22. Vso is defined as that speed which is stalling or minimum steady flight speed when in landing configuration.
23. Runway length at destination and aircraft takeoff/landing capability are required preflight information.
24. 9999 means light and variable winds
25. All wind directions are forecast using true direction relative to true north.

1. What is the significance of an airport rotating beacon operating during daylight?
2. Where should you set the altimeter setting at an uncontrolled airport?
3. If you change the altimeter setting from 29.85 to 29.15, what change has happened?
4. If the temperature at an altitude is hotter than standard, what happens to density altitude?
5. When can a pilot deviate from an ATC clearance?
6. Under what circumstances must the NTSB be given notification?
7. How is ATIS information distinct from other ATC communications?
8. What is the first indication of float type carburetor ice in a fixed pitch aircraft?
9. What causes the left-turn tendency of P-factor?
10. What is the 'pay' limit that is expected of a private pilot with passengers?
11. At what point in a flight will P-factor left turn pressures become greatest?
12. Why is ANY frost hazardous to flight?
13. Why should a pilot avoid operating an engine at excessively high temperatures?
14. What is the primary internal engine cooling factor.

1. The field is below VFR minimums.
2, Set the altimeter when you reach the highest useable part of the runway surface.
3. You have a 70-food decrease in indicated altitude.
4. Density altitude will be higher than pressure altitude.
5. Only in an emergency can a pilot deviate from an ATC clearance.
6. One such instance is when an aircraft is overdue and believed to have been in a accident.
7. ATIS information is 'non-control' information.
8. First icing symptom in training aircraft is a loss of RPM.
9. The propeller blades on the right have a higher pitch and more thrust than those descending on the left.
10. A private pilot must pay a pro-rata share of all immediate operating expenses related to fuel and airport.
11. P-factor becomes most apparent at high angles of attack and high power.
12. Frost 'hairs' prevent the formation of boundary air flow over the surface of the wing. Without this airflow there can be no lift.
13. High engine temperatures will cause power loss, lack of lubrication and internal engine damage.
14. Oil is used to cool the internal parts of the engine. Excess fuel cools the combustion chamber of the cylinder. Airflow carries heat away from the exterior of the engine. The engine internal temperature is measured by oil temperature.

1. What is the meaning of Vfe?
2. How is Va different from Vref?
3. What occurs when warm, moist air lies over low, flatland areas on clear calm nights.
4. What specific adjustment to landing approach should be made at night?
5. How is the night scan special?
6. What is #1 for you to recall in the event of engine failure on takeoff?
7. What is pressure altitude at 18,000 feet MSL altitude?
8. How should the altimeter be set prior to takeoff?
9. What is the most frequent cause of ground based temperature inversions?
10. What is density altitude?
11. If you have a flight control malfunction, what is required?

1. Vfe is the maximum indicated speed that flaps may be extended.
2. The POH Va is the maximum speed at full gross that full deflection of controls will cause no damage. Vref is the same speed at weights below gross where damage will not occur.
3. Warm, moist air over low flatland areas on clear calm nights is a breeding area of radiation fog.
4. None! Night landing approaches are essentially the same as daytime approaches. However, power should be carried into the flare to compensate for possible depth perception errors.
5. The night scan should be slow and focused off to one side of a specific target.
6. You should first of all establish the best glide angle and airspeed.
7. Pressure altitude is always set at 29.92. At 18,000 feet and above all altitudes are set at 29.92.
8. Local altimeters should be set to a local setting or to highest useable runway elevation.
9. Ground-level temperature inversions are caused by ground radiation on a still calm night
10. Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for temperature.
11. Control malfunction requires immediate notification of the NTSB.

1. How does weight affect stall speed?
2. How does weight affect critical angle of attack?
3. How can you obtain maximum glide from altitude?
4. What can you do toe maximize range when flying into a headwind?
5. Where is the nose when an airplane is skidding?
6. What is the purpose of trim tabs on the ailerons and elevators?
7. When does the descending propeller blade causes the most P-factor?
8. What effect does weight have on how far an aircraft will glide?

1. The lower the weight the lower the stall speed. Also the lower will be the maneuvering speed Va. After engine start Vs, Vso, and Va will decrease as fuel is consumed.
2. The aircraft will stall at the same angle of attack, regardless of weight.
3. Best glide is determined by weight. The greater the weight the higher the best glide speed. If Vy is given for various weights you can easily determine your best glide.
4. Increasing speed is your best alternative since it reduces the time spent against the headwind.
5. In a skid the nose of the plane is inside the turning arc.
6. The trim tab's purpose to move in a particular direction. To do this the tab must move in the opposite direction.
7. The descending propeller blade causes the most P-factor when it has the highest angle of attack to the relative wind.
8. Weight has no effect on how far an aircraft can glide. The distance is totally dependent upon the selection of the correct glide speed for best glide distance. This selection of glide speed is determined by weight. Heavier means to increase speed.

1. What must be requested when getting a Standard Briefing from an FSS specialist?
2. What can you expect while flying in a large warm air mass?
3. What entries must you have before making a cross-country flight?
4. What aircraft signoffs are required?
5. How can an AWOS report different kinds of precipitation?
6. An ATC clearance to taxi to a given runway means that you can do what?
7. What is required of the pilot when ATC clears you taxi into position and hold?
8. At what minimum wind velocity, would you be well advised not to fly in the mountains?
9. Once you have landed without closing your flight plan, how many different ways can you do it?
10. By looking at the chart, how can you determine the airspace Class of an airport?
11. At a controlled airport, how is right of way determined?
12. What is the significance of being told to standby by ATC?
13. What is the definition of night time for purposes of logging night flight?
14. As a student, what must be in your personal possession on a flight that is not required of a private pilot?
15. What two times does the minimum safe altitudes over congested areas not apply.

1. A weather briefing will not include customs and immigration procedures.
2. Large warm air mass weather has stratus clouds and drizzle.
3. Instructor must sign cross-country part of license (Solo part done for aircraft type), Logbook must have 90-day signoff and flight must be signed off as having been approved for date and time of day.
4. Since this is an instructional flight the aircraft must have a 100 hour inspection. The transponder and ELT must be current as to 24-month signoff and battery change.
5. Different kinds of precipitation must be reported by a human.
6. A ground taxi clearance is approval to go everywhere but on the active runway.
7. An ATC clearance to taxi into position and hold must be 'read back' and complied with.
8. The AIM recommends avoiding mountain terrain when winds exceed 20 knots.
9. The least acceptable way is to ask someone else to do it, like ATC. You can close by radio if a GRCO (Ground remote communications outlet) exists or by phone to the FSS 800 number.
10, The class of an airport's airspace can be determined by the color of the airport and the type and color of any lines around it.
11. ATC sets the sequence and right of way for arriving and departing aircraft. In below VFR conditions, IFR traffic is given preference over SVFR aircraft.
12. Standby means for you not to respond and wait. Do not enter Class B, C, or D airspace.
13. The logging of night flight time begins one hour after sunset and ends one hour before sunrise.
14. A Student pilot must carry his logbook in addition to the medical and license required of a private pilot.
15. Minimum safe altitude does not apply in a emergency and for landing purposes.

1. Where can you taxi without an ATC clearance at a Class Delta airport?
2. What does a taxi to a runway give you the right to do?
3. What is required before a pilot can actually use a LAHS procedure?
4 What help is available during a low-visibility taxiing situation?
5. What is the significance of a Red sign with a white ILS on it?
6. What is the significance of the number of threshold stripes on an instrument runway?
7. What is the meaning of a black square sign with a single white digit on the side of a runway?
8. What is the meaning of an orange rectangular sign with two black digits and an arrow?
9. What is the meaning of a red rectangular sign with a number and APCH on it?
10. What is the meaning of an orange sign with a letter followed by an arrow?
11. What is effect of a forward center of gravity.
12. What can cause the airspeed indicator to display erratic readings?
13. What generalization can best determine the effectiveness of your radio communications?
14. Should you use a butane lighter in your emergency kit?

1. Non-movement areas at an airport do not require a clearance.
2. A clearance to taxi allows you to use any part of the airport other than the active runways.
3. A pilot cannot be given a land and hold short procedure unless there are VFR minimums at the airport, the pilot has the published LAHS AF/F information, the procedure is accepted by the pilot by a read back of the clearance and an acceptance.
4. The pilot can request progressive taxi assistance, that an airport vehicle act as a guide, that certain lights be turned on or off and that green centerline lights be activated.
5. The read ILS sign is a hold sign when ILS operations are in effect. Objects past the sign can interfere with the ILS system.
6. Runways can have even numbers of stripes from four to sixteen indicative of runway width from 60 to 140 feet wide.
7. This black square with a single digit indicates the amount of runway remaining in thousands of feet.
8. The arrow points the way to the takeoff end of runway numbered.
9. This is a required holding position because of a runway approach area.
10. This can be direction to a taxiway or a runway exit for a taxiway.
 11. A forward CG increases the leverage of the fixed and movable tail flying surfaces. This makes any movement of the tail controls more effective and positive. Moving things toward the aft CG range reduces the pitch and yaw stability. This means that small movements can cause large reactions in the aircraft.
12. Erratic airspeed can be caused by blocked or partially blocked pitot tube.
13, Good radio technique uses only words that get results.
14. Butane lighters dangerous to carry on an aircraft. Even more dangerous to use.

1. What do you get when a true course is corrected for magnetic variation?
2. When can we expect low level wind shear?
3. If an increase in indicated airspeed in a level turn causes a climb, how can the climb be corrected?
4. How does climbing above ground effect, affect an airplane?
5. Where will the greatest increase in turbulence be felt when over flying a mountain ridge?
6. What illusion occurs when flying into haze?
7. How is an adjustable pitch propeller set for best takeoff performance?
8. What is the common symptom of hyperventilation?
9. What factor of the atmosphere determines the type of clouds formed?
10. When must pilots maintain specific VFR altitudes?
11. What equipment is required for night flight?

1. True course corrected for magnetic variation gives magnetic course.
2. Low level wind shear is to be expected when there is a low level temperature inversion accompanied by strong winds.
3. A climb during a turn may be corrected either by increasing the bank angle or reducing the angle of attack.
4. Once an airplane climbs above 1/2 wing span above the ground the absence of ground effect causes a significant increase in induced drag that can only be overcome by increased thrust.
5. There will be a noticeable increase in turbulence when crossing a mountain ridge when flying into the wind on the lee side of the ridge.
6. In haze everything is closer than it appears.
7. For takeoff a small (fine) angle of attack and high rpm is set in the propeller.
8. When you hyperventilate (rapid breath) you become sleepy.
9. Cloud type formation is determined by the stability of the rising air.
10. Any time a VFR aircraft is over 3000' above ground level it must obey the hemispheric rule.|

1, What damaging effect to the aircraft engine can occur through a series of rapid power changes?
2. How does a high-pressure areas in the Northern Hemisphere circulate?
3. An aircraft that uses 48 pounds of fuel to fly 100 nautical miles in an hour, how far can it fly with VFR reserves with 39 gallons of useable fuel?
4. What weather condition exists when you have severe, steady-state thunderstorms without a front?
5. What is true about magnetic deviation for a given aircraft?
6. What does the mnemonic DECIDE do?
7. What is standard temperature at 10,000'?
8. What should a pilot do to counter the effects of hyperventilation?
9. When is a landing light required for night flight?
10. When are specific flight altitudes required for VFR flight?
11. How is the stability of the air a determiner of the type of cloud formation?
12. How can you tell that you are hyperventilating?
13. What are the constant speed propeller settings for a constant speed propeller?
14. How will your perception of distance be affected by haze?
15. In the Sierras where can you expect the greatest turbulence?
16. What happens as an airplane leaves ground effect?
17. If in a level 30-degree turn you increase power, what else must you do?
18. What conditions are conducive to low-level wind shear?

1. The engine has counterweights designed to smooth out throttle applications. Rapid power changes can
'detune' their effects on the crankshaft. This causes stress sufficient to cause failure.
2. High-pressure in the Northern Hemisphere circulates outward, downward and clockwise.
3. You have 234 pounds of useable fuel aboard. 234 divided by 48 equals 4.875 hours or 292.5 minutes. With 30 minutes VFR reserve this leaves 262.5 minutes or 4.375 Hours (4 hours 21 minutes) You would still have 24 pounds or 30 minutes of flying time before the engine quits.
4. You have a squall line of thunderstorms.
5. Variation will be different on every heading.
6. DECIDE is used for decision making. Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, and Evaluate
7. Temperature drops from sea level standard of 15 degrees Celsius by two degrees per thousand feet.
10,000' would be a drop of 20 degrees Celsius, or -5 degrees.
8. Hyperventilation can be countered by deliberately slowing the breathing rate or by breathing into a paper bag.
9. A landing light is required for any night flight performed for hire.
10. The hemispheric rule for VFR flight altitudes begins at 3000' above ground level.
11. Stratiform clouds require stable air condition; unstable air forms cumuliform clouds.
12. Drowsiness is a primary symptom of hyperventilation.
13. For takeoff, a constant speed propeller is best operated at shallow pitch and high rpm.
14. Any visible object on the ground or in the air is actually closer than it seems.
15. Into the wind, the lee (far) side of a ridge will be most turbulent. A tailwind will be most turbulent on the windward (near) side.
16. Induced drag will increase and more thrust will be required to maintain rate of climb.
17. You must decrease the angle of attack. Push forward on the yoke or increase the angle of bank.
18. Among other things, a low-level temperature inversion with high winds above will cause a low-level wind shear.

1, When should you always stick with a flying decision?
2. How is flight time in the U.S. determined?
3. What is the official FAA term for crop dusting?
4. How can what a good pilot says be determined in an emergency?
5. Why should a pilot avoid touching a helicopter drop-basket before it touches the ground?
6. Is flying with two experienced pilots in the cockpit, hazardous?
7. Why will science and technology overcome the inertia of the FAA?
8. What easy way can a pilot use to always fly at the correct engine out speed in an emergency?
9. What has induced drag to do with true airspeed?
10. What as parasitic drag to do with true airspeed?

1. If before you talk with others, you have decided it is unsafe to fly, it will still be unsafe after you talk.
2. Flight time is time that begins with engine start and ends with shut-down.
3. Crop dusting is now Aerial Application
4. The better the pilot, the more willing he is to admit what he doesn't know and has no concern in asking for help.
5. Do not touch a helicopter drop basket until after it touches the ground. Large static electrical charges from
the helicopter blades can discharge through your body.
6. Two experienced pilots flying together can equal a potentially dangerous combination. Instructors tend to treat rated pilots, of differing experience levels, differently. The instructor may become complacent and fail to supervise carefully or soon enough.
7. Science and technology will triumph over fear and superstition 
8. Mark the trim indicator for the position that gives a power off and hands-off approach speed with no flaps
9. Induced drag goes as the reciprocal of the square of the true air speed.
10. Parasitic drag goes as the square of the true airspeed.

How are the SVFR requirements for night different than day?
2. Who can give a SVFR clearance?
3. What are the cloud clearance and flight visibility requirements of SVFR?
4. What is the meaning of a pilot saying, "I have the one minute weather"?
5. How can you determine if an annual inspection has been made and completed?
6. What specific inspection is required for an aircraft used for instruction for hire?
7. What are the requirements for the legal use of a transponder?
8. When are you required to determine the available runway length at an airport of intended use?
9. Why does air cool as it is at a higher altitude?
10. What is the agonic line?
11. Are all Class E airspaces either below 700' or 1200'?

1. At least a private pilot rating is required for both day and night. The controlling ATC agency must have one mile ground visibility before granting the clearance. The day or night the pilot must have one mile flight visibility and remain clear of clouds. At night both the pilot and aircraft must be IFR qualified and capable.

2. A SVFR clearance may be issued by ground control in Class C or D airspace with the control tower operating. A clearance may be granted in the air by a Class C or D tower controller and by a Class C radar facility controller.

3. While the ATC ground visibility requirements are one statute mile, the pilot must remain clear of clouds and have one mile flight visibility.

4.When a pilot says, "I have the one minute weather." It is his way of telling ATC that he has heard and understood the available ASOS or AWOS weather as broadcast.

5. The inspector mechanic must have made the appropriate entries into the aircraft maintenance logs to show that the inspection has been made and the aircraft is returned to service.

6. An aircraft used for hire instruction must have had a 100-hour inspection.

7. A transponder must have been tested, inspected and found to be in compliance with regulations within the past 24 months to be legal.

8. Determining the length of runway of intended destination is required for every flight by FAR 91.103.

9. The air is not heated by the sun as much as it is heated by the earth's radiation of heat from the sun.
As the distance of the air becomes greater, there is less radiant heat reaches the atmosphere. Temperature decreases by 3.5 F and 2.0 C per 1000 feet.

10. The agonic line is the 'zero' line of variation where the true north pole and the magnetic north pole are in line. This line cuts through the U.S. very near Chicago.

11. No. There are many designated Class E airspaces that begin several thousand feet above the surface. One such airspace is near Ukiah, CA.

1. What is the meaning of SMGCS?
2. What is the system?
3. How would you describe 'stop bar lights'?
4. How would you describe 'runway guard lights'?
5. How would you describe 'taxiway centerline lights'?
6. What is a geographic position marker?
7. What are clearance bar lights?
8. What are taxiway centerline markings?

1. SMGCS means Surface Movement Guidance and Control System

2. SMGCS is a complex system of automated and sensor operated lights to control the movement of aircraft.

3. Stop bar lights are red in pavement lights that are for low visibility (600' RVR) operations. ATC can turn off lights to confirm clearance to pilot to proceed along green lead-on lights to the runway. Aircraft movement will activate a sensor to turn lights on after passage.

4. Runway guard lights are a pair of in-pavement or raised flashing yellow lights on taxiways giving access to active runways. They identify the hold short position.

5. Taxiway centerline lights are green in-pavement lights showing the taxiway centerline.

6. A geographic position marker is a round pink sign with a black number. It is used by ATC as a locator or a hold point.

7. In-pavement clearance lights consist of three yellow lights to indicate a holding place or a position when with a geographic position marker.

8. Taxiway centerline markings are yellow taxiway markings with black borders for greater visibility.

1. What measure is used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?
2. What are the battery life requirements of an emergency locator transmitter?
3. What are the cloud clearance requirements for VFR above 10,000 feet?
4. What is the valid time of a third class medical issued to a pilot over 50 years old?
5. What inherent dangers exist when an aircraft is flown faster than the never-exceed or redline airspeed?
6. When is it legal to hand-prop an aircraft?
7. What is required if you wish to fly through a restricted area?
8. What is the most common source of avection fog?
9. What is the root cause of spatial disorientation?
10. What documents must be aboard an aircraft in flight?
11. Under what conditions can you expect to find frost?
12. What is the definition of Vso?
13. What is the meaning of ATC saying, "Cleared to…?
14. What are the minimum requirements for SVFR night operations in Class D?
15. Why do density altitudes affect propeller efficiency?
16. What is the minimum radios required for Class B airspace?

1. It is the actual lapse rate, or rate of change in temperature, that determines atmospheric stability.
2. The ELT battery must be replaced when the time of use first exceeds one hour; or when the battery reaches its half-life time limit as attached to the ELT and noted in the aircraft logbook.
3. When above 10,000 feet and more than 1200 above the surface the required VFR clearance is one mile laterally and 1000 feet above and below clouds.
4. A third class medical to a pilot just over fifty is valid for two years.
5. The redline indicates a speed beyond which the structural integrity has not been tested. Control surface flutter can occur sufficient to cause external and internal failure. This damage can be accumulative and undetected from previous incursions.
6. Unless the aircraft is certified as without an electric starter, any hand propping could be considered as
operation of an unairworthy aircraft under current FAR interpretations. It is just possible jump-starting
could be also so interpreted. (Checking??)
7. A restricted area can be flown into or through only with controlling agency's authorization.
8. Advection fog is usually caused when an air mass over the ocean moves onshore.
9. Spatial disorientation occurs when a pilot uses body signals to interpret flight attitudes.
10 Aircraft documents required are airworthiness certificate, registration certificate, operating limitations and radio station license if with radio.
11. Frost occurs when the collecting surface is at or below the dew point of the air and the dew point is below freezing.
12. Vso is the stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
13. A clearance is an authorization to precede under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace…
ATC disclaims any responsibility for the outcome.
14. For night VFR the pilot must be current and instrument rated and the aircraft IFR equipped.
15. In high-density situations the propeller is less efficient because the movement of the blade against fewer air molecules exerts less force than when the air is dense with more molecules.
16. The required minimum electronics for an aircraft to operate in Class B airspace are a two-way radio and transponder with encoding altimeter

1. Beyond the VFR required instruments, what are required for night flight?
2. What are the night limitations for pattern work?
3. What are night VFR fuel requirements?
4. If you see an aircraft converging toward you at night and you see only the red nav light. Who has the right of way?
5. What is the latest that an aircraft not equipped for night flight can operate?
6. What are the instructional minimums for a private pilot not to have night limitations on his license?
7. Is there a minimum night flight instruction for a student before obtaining a private pilot license?
8. A pilot is out of night experience recency requirements when the sun sets at 1830. At what time must he kick out his passenger?
9. Under what ground visibility conditions can an aircraft engage in night flight at a Class E airport.
10. What communications are required for the use of an uncontrolled airport that is within the airspace of a tower-controlled airport?
11. What are the preflight actions required just in case any flight cannot be completed as planned?
12. What major areas should questions in a student pre-solo test cover?
13. What side benefit comes from passing a pilot proficiency FAA check ride?
14. What is the distinction between authorizations allowed for a basic and advanced Ground Instructor?
15. What endorsement is required for a student to make a solo cross-country?
16. What are flight review minimum times of instruction?

1. Beyond the 15 possible VFR instrument requirements, night flights require all required VFR equipment
for day plus PAEF(L) FAPE FLEAP FAEP(L)61.205
1. Position Lights
2. Approved anti-collision lights
3. Electrical source
4. Fuses
(5. Landing light if for hire)
2. Night pattern work can be made in less than three-mile visibility but more than one-mile visibility within 1/2 - mile of runway. 91.155
3. Night VFR fuel requirements are to be enough to destination plus 45-minutes.
4. When you see a green nav light the aircraft is moving left to right and you are on the right with the right of way. When you see a red nav light the aircraft is moving right to left and he has the right of way. 91.114

5. The latest an aircraft can fly that is not equipped for night flight is one-minute before sunset.
6. A restriction free private pilot must have had three hours of night instruction with ten landings to a full stop and one flight to a destination over 50 NM from departure point and back.

7. Minimum private pilot instruction consists of three hours of night flight instruction. License will have a 'Night flight prohibited' on the license.
8. The pilot can not carry a passenger legally later than 1929
9. Night pattern work at a Class E airport can be done if the visibility is greater than one-mile.
10. To use the included uncontrolled airport you must communicate with the tower to fly into and use the Class D airspace.
11. Preflight planning requires consideration of alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed is required for any flight not in the vicinity of the departure airport.
12. The questions on a student pre-solo test should cover all applicable regulations, flight characteristics and operational limitations of aircraft used.
13. The FAA flight proficiency ride can be used to take the place of a flight review.
14. Basic Ground Instructors can teach recreational and private pilots; advanced can teach all others.
15. An endorsement in student logbook must show that preflight planning and preparation has been reviewed and the student is prepared to make the flight safely.
16. A flight review must have a minimum of one hour of ground and one hour of flight instruction.

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