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PTS IFR Oral
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Questions and Answers
Over Three hundred fifty IFR questions and answers in groups of twenty or less;
1. What is the purpose of an FDC NOTAM?
2. To get a visual approach, you must be...
3. What are minimum requirements for a contact approach.
4. What differentiates a visual from a contact approach?
5. What specifics are mentioned as being part of "all available information for IFR flights?
6. Must ATC advise you if a facility is NOTAMed out of service?
7. ATC is required to pass along PIREPS?
8. What pilot response is expected when you are cleared for descent at pilots discretion?
9. What is the significance to the pilot of an ATC directive to do something when able?
10. When are pilot reports required?
11. You must know the weather before shooting a Part 91 approach.
12. When can you log an approach as IFR?
13. Can an FSS provide separation where no tower or approach exists?
14. When is a missed approach procedure not an assumed option?
15. What separation remains with ATC even on a Practice approach?
1. FDC NOTAMs are regulations covering changes in instrument approach procedures and temporary flight restrictions. FDCs must be location specific to DUAT. FDCs within 400 miles are maintained by FSS until published in biweekly Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP). FDCs are not included in weather briefings unless asked for. (See AIM 5-1-3 for NOTAM contractions)
2. Aircraft on IFR flight plan while airport is VFR, in sight, and traffic to follow also in sight.
3. Aircraft on IFR plan may request contact approach if they are clear of clouds and expect to remain clear of clouds and have one mile flight visibility to the airport.
4. Pilot must request contact approach. ATC can assign visual approach which must have higher weather minimums.
5. A pilot must have weather reports and forecasts, required fuel plus reserves, flight alternatives, known traffic delays, and airport runway lengths.
6. ATC must give you alternative routes and may tell you why this is required. Ask.
7. ATC is required to pass pertinent flight information, including PIREPS but it doesnt always happen.
8. A pilot should always report leaving last assigned altitude.
9. Any clearance or direction by ATC for the pilot to perform something when able, means just that. The performance is entirely at the pilots determination of "able".
10. Pilot reports are required in the event of equipment failure, leaving an assigned altitude, departing a holding pattern, making a missed approach and FAF.
11. Not required for Part 91 to know or have weather. Take a look is
authorized. Better have landing visibility minimums if you land.
12. If any part of the approach is flown in IFR conditions the entire approach can be logged as an IFR approach.
13. It is unlikely that an FSS will give more than relayed clearances, releases, possible reported traffic, and weather.
14. The missed approach may not be flown on VFR or Practice approaches
unless specifically requested and approved by ATC.
15. ATC is always responsible for runway separation and all ground separation.
1. What is the course width of an ILS localizer?
2. What is the course width of a localizer-type directional aid(LDA)?
3. What is the course width of a simplified directional facility (SDF)?
4. What is the course width of a glideslope?
5. What is the standard useable distance for using a glideslope?
6. What is the standard useable distance for a localizer?
7. The middle marker is how far from the runway?
8. The marker light that flashes on a back course is what color?
9. On an ILS approach the white light indicates what marker?
10. On an ILS approach the color of the light over the middle marker is?
11. The standard MDA with of the localizer back course is?
12. When is it acceptable to descend 50' below DH? (FAR 91.175)
13. Can you descend into ground fog from clear conditions to below DH?
14. What are the three conditions that allow descent below DH?
15. What does "Cleared for the approach" mean?
16. What is the controlling visibility for Part 91 operations?
17. When can a pilot change from an ILS to a Localizer approach.
18. Is a Part 91 pilot required to abide by an IFR departure procedure?
19. Do monitors shut down defective glide slopes?
1. ILS course width is 3-6 degrees full width to give 700' at runway threshold. (AIM 1-10(b)(2))
2. Same as ILS above. (AIM 1-10 (c)(1))
3. Simplified Directional Facility (SDF) is 6-12 degrees adjusted for safest operation. (AIM 1-11 (f))
4. 1.4 degrees vertical width. (AIM 1-10 (d) (3))
5. Standard glideslope distance is 10 nautical miles. (AIM 1-10 (d) (3))
6. Course guidance is 18 nautical miles up to 4500' above antenna and 1000' above course terrain. (AIM 1-10 (B)(5))
7. Middle marker is 3500' from threshold.
8. Back course marker is white.
9. On the ILS a white marker indicates the inner marker. (obsolete)
10. The middle marker light is amber.
11. The back course localizer at the threshold is 400' MDA standard.
12. According to the FAA, "Never".
14. 1) Ability to execute normal landing; 2) Visibility not less than charted; 3) Required visual runway references (10 of them) (91.175)
1. Approach lights
3. Threshold markings
4. Threshold lights
5. End identifier lights
6. Visual approach slope indicator
7. Touchdown zone or markings
8. Touchdown zone lights
9. Runway or runway markings
10. Runway lights
15. Fly the approach as charted at charted altitudes or higher
16. Part 91 operations are controlled by flight visibility as determined by the pilot.
17. A pilot can change from ILS to Localizer any time before descent to localizer minimums. An additional ATC clearance is not required.
18. A Part 91 pilot need only to abide by the procedure that is in the ATC clearance.
19. Old ones did but no longer. You must check flags.
1. Is a pilot required to begin an approach at an IAF?
2. When is an approach an IFR approach?
3. Which NOTAMs are about navigational facilities, public airports, etc.?
4. Which NOTAMs are about taxiway closures, taxiway lighting, and beacons?
5. Which NOTAMs apply to regulations, charts and flight restrictions?
6. What is the requirement to advise ATC when you change departure time?
7. What must you do if you miss a clearance void time takeoff?
8. How is obstacle clearance provided during an IFR departure?
9. When must you advise ATC of a change in airspeed?
10. When should ATC give a clearance beyond your clearance limit if there are no delays?
11. What does MSA (minimum safe altitude) have to do with approaches?
12. What are the limitations of the MVA.
13. What does 'cleared for the option' mean on an IFR approach?
14. How is a VDP (visual descent point) used?
15. What is the meaning of 'minimum fuel advisory"?
16. During a visual approach, when is radar service terminated?
17. What is the minimum climb rate required for an unpublished IFR departure?
18 Transitioning from enroute to an approach transitions what airspace?
19. What is the universal definition of uncontrolled airspace?
20. What clearances can be issued to a pilot by ATC without being asked?
1. There is no requirement to begin an approach at an IAF.
2. An IFR approach is an IFR approach when any part of the approach is IFR or under the hood.
3. Distant NOTAMs AIM 5-3
4. Local NOTAMs AIM 5-3
5. Flight Data Center NOTAMs, FDCs. AIM 5-3
6. Notify ATC if you are delayed more than an hour. AIM 5-11
7. You cannot depart after a clearance void time and you must advise ATC within 30 minutes. AIM 5-23
8. It is the pilot's responsibility as to procedure and obstacle clearance. AIM 5-25
9. If your flight true airspeed varies from your filed true airspeed by 5% or 10 knots, ATC expects to be advised.
10. ATC should issue a clearance beyond the fix as soon as possible and at least five minutes before reaching the clearance limit. AIM 4- 82
11. MSA is for emergency use only. Measured from NDB or VOR. AIM 5-44
12. MVA always provides 1000' terrain clearance but may not provide 2000' in mountains. AIM 5-44
13. "Option" means you can make low approach, missed approach, touch-and-go, stop-and-go, or full stop. AIM 4-71
14. Visual descent points are used only on non-precision straight in approaches. AIM 5-44
15. Minimum fuel advisory by the pilot does not give priority. AIM 5-84
16. Radar service is terminated when you are told to contact the tower. AIM 5-80
17. 200 fpm.
18. Transitions use airspace from 700/1200 AGL to the base of the overlying airspace.
19. ATC does not control aircraft in uncontrolled airspace.
20. ATC can issue a pilot a visual approach, STAR, or SID when it wants to.
1. At what distance from the airport do you usually intercept the glideslope?
2. Why do some glide slopes prohibit coupled approaches?
3. Marker crossing altitudes on the charts are given above (what)?
4. How far out can you intercept and track a glideslope?
5. What is required for ATC to authorize visual separation?
6. What are minimum visual separation standards?
7. What are Class B visual separation standards?
8. What are visual separation standards if radar is not available?
9. What is the effect of a pilots admission of visual contact?
10. Where is visual separation not allowed.
11. On accepting visual separation what does ATC expect of the pilot?
12. Can two departing IFR aircraft request visual separation?
13. What is the visual separation limitations for Class E airspace.
14. What will the alternate static source do to instrument readings?
15. What is the effect on the VSI of a blocked static source?
16. Why do we vary the angle of attack during a level turn?
17. What procedure will correctly give the climb lead necessary to level off at a given altitude?
18. What factors influence how to lead a level off from a descent?
1. Glide slopes are usually intercepted 10 miles from the threshold.
2. If terrain caused glideslope problems can't be fixed, no coupled approaches are allowed.
3. Both NOS and Jepp as MSL and AGL above TDZE
4. Watch out for false slopes but there is no regulation saying when to intercept.
5. Conditions must allow continual visual contact of one aircraft with another.
6. Pilot decision determines visual separation minimums.
7. See answer # 6.
8. Radar is not a factor in visual separation
9. Once a pilot has visual contact, separation responsibility rests entirely with the pilot.
10. Class A airspace does not allow visual separation.
11. The pilot is expected to maneuver to maintain visual separation once it has been granted by ATC.
12. Two departing IFR aircraft can be granted visual separation by ATC but the entire burden of such responsibility rests on the pilot.
13. There are no visual separation limitations in Class E airspace.
14. With an active alternate static source the altimeter will read higher than it should. Indicated airspeed will read higher than it should. The VSI will show initial climb.
15. Whatever the VSI is reading at the moment of blockage will remain constant regardless of the aircraft behavior. The VSI works on differential pressures of a sealed chamber and the static air source.
16. In a level turn the vertical lift component is decreased by the amount of force required to make the turn. To hold altitude, this decrease must be compensated by an increase in angle of attack.
17. The easiest way to lead your leveling off at a given altitude is to use 10% of your vertical climb speed.
18. The lead required to level off from a descent is determined by the speed of descent and the selected level airspeed. If descent and level are to be at the same speed use 10% of descent rate. If level speed is to be higher then bring up power at 20% of descent rate point and hold nose for speed increase but allow to rise at % point for level flight at higher than descent speed.
1. If the ATIS does not give sky conditions you are supposed to know...
2. How does 'see and avoid' apply to IFR flight?
3. Where is VFR-on-top not allowed?
4. How do you determine a proper altitude if cleared VFR-on-top?
5. What reports are required when VFR-on-top?
6. What reports require a specific ATC request?
7. At what point should the outbound timing begin when holding at an NDB?
8. When cleared for a visual approach, when can you commence descending?
9. Are you required to report leaving an altitude?
10. What does 'cruise 6000' mean?
11. What climb/descent rate does ATC expect from you?
12. What does 'expedite' mean when used by ATC over the radio?
13. Breaking the VSI glass will restore the pitot-static system except for the VSI. When will the VSI read accurately?
14. How long will a terminal forecast (FT) be valid?
15. Transcribed Weather Broadcast route forecasts are issued twice a day and are valid for how long?
16. How will a briefer inform you that flight under VFR is questionable?
17. Why would an AIRMET not be issued over an area with moderate icing, moderate turbulence, 30+ knot winds, and ceilings of below 1000' and visibility less than three miles with extensive mountain obscuration?
18. Where can you expect microbursts.
19. Why is holding prohibited over the areas of a glideslope?
1. No sky condition in the ATIS means ceiling over 5000' and 5 mile visibility. AIM 4-13
2. When conditions permit, IFR pilots are expected to "see and avoid". FAR 91.113
3. No VFR of any kind is allowed in Class A airspace.
4. All VFR flight must comply with the hemispheric rule as determined by Magnetic Course when 3000' or more AGL. FAR 91.159
5. VFR-on-top flights must give reports as though non-radar IFR.
6. ATC must make a specific request for a FAF report.
7. When abeam the NDB the outbound timing should begin.
8. Descent is at your discretion unless restricted by ATC.
9. It is recommended in AIM 5-33 that you report leaving an altitude. I feel that ATC likes to know a pilot is competent and knowledgeable.
10. It lets you fly at any altitude from the IFR minimum to 6000'. You can climb and descend at your discretion but you cannot climb again if you have reported to ATC that you are leaving an altitude. A cruise clearance is also a clearance to your destination. Rarely used.
11. ATC expects a minimum of 500 fpm. According to AIM 5-33 you are expected to advise ATC if you are unable to perform.
12. "Expedite' is used by ATC when immediate compliance is required.
13. Level flight. All climb and descent readings will be backward.
14. 24 hours
15. The morning forecast is valid for 12 hours. The evening for 18 hours.
16. "VFR flight is not recommended".
17. An AIRMET will not be issued if the information in the terminal forecast (FA).
18. Microbursts can be expected wherever there is convective activity.
19. An aircraft in a holding pattern can cause glideslope distortion.
1. When does a microburst die?
2. What should you do if you enter a thunderstorm?
3. What distance is considers as safe for avoiding thunderstorms?
4. What is indicated by the presence of virga?
5. What is required for a visual approach?
6. What is required for a contact approach.
7. Where do we find the FDC NOTAMs?
8. IFR flight requires that you have all available information plus...
9. How does the AI react differently in a roll Vs a loop?
10. to recover from a steep diving unusual attitude what is the best instrument to use for recovery?
11. In unusual attitude recovery, why level wings before fixing pitch?
12. Why do aircraft recovery from changes in pitch attitude?
13. How can you identify the horizon in recovery from an unusual attitude?
14. How does the localizer of Category II approaches differ from standard?
15. What is the meaning of RA 345 on an approach chart?
16. Why might a Category II approach have two DHs?
17. What should you expect if crossing the threshold on the glide slope?
1. A microburst becomes stronger for about five minutes and then takes another ten minutes to dissipate
2. Continue straight ahead, ignore altitude changes, slow to Va, don't turn, and stay level.
3. 20 miles.
4. Strong downdrafts with moderate + turbulence.
5. A visual approach must be authorized by ATC, be on an IFR flight plan, must have airport or preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to maintain VFR to the airport.
6. For a contact approach you must be on an IFR flight plan, clear of clouds in one mile visibility, conditions expected to remain enroute to airport, must be requested by pilot.
7. Every two weeks the Notices to Airmen publishes the NOTAM Ds expected to remain active and the FDC NOTAMs currently effective.
8. In addition to all available information you must have weather reports forecasts, needed fuel, alternatives, known traffic delays and runway lengths.
9. AIs do not tumble during a roll. In roll they will read correctly. In pitch, when a loop exceeds the 80-degrees the AI stops in up/down pitch and then slowly read correctly.
10. If the dive is not inverted, the turn coordinator is easiest to use.
11. Leveling wings reduces load factor and prevents a spiral dive.
12. Positive dynamic stability is the design quality of an aircraft which allows it to make a self-recovery from pitch changes.
13. The horizon can be identified in unusual attitude recovery when the VSI, altimeter and airspeed reverse trend direction.
14. Category II localizers are no more accurate but signal quality is higher.
15. RA 345 on an approach chart is a radar altitude which can only be determined if you have a radar altimeter.
16. After a Category II pilot has gained experience he can take lower DHs.
17. Crossing the threshold on the ILS on the glide slope will give touchdown at the 1000' markers.
1. Are glide slope and localizer equipped for shutdown on failure?
2. Why are low altitude holds prohibited over any part of the ILS?
3. What is the service range of an ILS signal?
4. What are false glide slopes?
5. Can you intercept a glide slope from far away and fly it inbound?
6. How does a attitude indicator precess under acceleration?
7. What kind of bank does a coordinated turn show on the turn coordinator?
8. What is the best way to increase the rate of turn while decreasing the radius of the turn in a standard rate turn?
9. What is the effect of temperature on true airspeed?
10. What is the effect of true altitude on true airspeed?
11. How do you determine pressure altitude?
12, With an altimeter setting of 30.43 at an altitude of 6000 feet what will the pressure altitude be?
13. When making a standard rate turn how fast are you turning?
1. Shutdown is not automatic. Always check flags for glide slope and localizer.
2. Aircraft at moderate altitudes and lower can cause localizer distortion.
3. ILS standard service volume is 10 miles but may be farther.
4. False glide slopes are allowed to exist above the published glideslope. The key identifier is the crossing altitude of the marker. False glide slopes will have a steeper angle of descent.
5. You can fly a glideslope from beyond 10 miles out but you have no way to determine if it is false or true until you get an altitude check.
6. When accelerated the AI moves down so that corrections will cause an unwarranted descent.
7. Turn coordinator does not show bank. It only shows rate of turn regardless of airspeed.
8. If maintaining a standard rate turn it will be the same regardless of airspeed so rate cannot be changed. The radius of the turn can be reduced by slowing the TAS of the aircraft.
9. True airspeed will vary directly with changes of temperature. TAS increases as temperature rise and decreases as temperatures fall.
10. True airspeed will vary directly with changes of true altitude. TAS increases as true altitude rises and decreases as true altitude becomes lower.
11. Pressure altitude is determined by setting altimeter to 29.92.
12. The difference is .51 or 510 feet. Pressure altitude is 5490 feet.
13. Three degrees a second, thirty degrees in 10 seconds, 90 degrees in thirty seconds, 180 degrees per minute.
1. What common flight instrument is not required for IFR flight?
2. Where do false glide slopes exist?
3. How do you overcome spatial disorientation?
4. What kinesthetic sense is created by a smoothly coordinated 1.5G turn? (This is more than a standard rate turn)
5. When can level flight from an unusual attitude recovery be noted on the instruments?
6. How do you recover from a spiraling descent?
7. What the difference between flying "over the top" and "on top."
8. What constitutes the end of radar service?
9. When on an IFR flight, ATC advises that radar contact has been lost. What do you do?
10. Non-radar separation standards are?
11. What depends on your distance from the antenna?
12. When cleared for approach why might ATC issue an altitude restriction?
1. The VSI is not a required IFR flight instrument.
2. False glide slopes are permitted to exist only above the real one.
3. Spatial disorientation cannot be prevented. It can be overcome by total reliance on the instruments.
4. The illusion produced is the entrance into a climb if the head is held erect eyes covered but open. With the eyes closed the illusion is that of a dive. (needs confirmation)
5. Approximate level occurs when airspeed and altimeter slow their rate of change and the VSI reverses.
6. Recovery from a spiraling descent is best achieved by power reduction, leveling of wings, and raising the nose. The closer together these occur the better will be the recovery.
7. "VFR over the top" is when a VFR pilot flies over a ceiling "IFR over the top" is the act of flying VFR over a ceiling on
an IFR flight plan "VFR on top" is the clearance an IFR pilot must request while on an IFR flight
8. The controller may make a specific statement or convention says that being told to contact the tower or the advisory frequency constitutes a termination of radar service.
9. When radar contact is lost resume making all standard and requested position reports.
10. Single - thread procedures usually prevail in non-radar situations. One aircraft at a time is taken in or out until radar can make contact and provide separation.
11. Terminal separation depends on the aircraft distance from the antenna. 3 miles is standard within 40 miles and 5 is standard beyond that the same as Center.
12. Any time ATC issues an altitude restriction as part of an approach clearance you should assume that an obstacle is responsible.
1. When is the IFR departure required for Part 91 aircraft in Class D
2. What is unusual about Part 91 IFR takeoff minimums?
3. Where takeoff minimums exist for FAR Parts they relate only to...
4. At what altitude AGL may an IFR turn be initiated?
5. How are commercial operations different than Part 91?
6. Aircraft approach categories under FAR 97 are determined by...
7. If an emergency requires deviation under FAR 91 you must...?
8. ATC priority handling by ATC in violation of FAR 91 requires..?
9. Part 91 takeoff minimums are...
10. On an IFR approach when must you execute a missed approach?
11. When on a VASI runway you are required to...
12. What is the maximum speed allowed in Class D airspace?
13. Who determines if an aircraft is airworthy?
14. Who determines if an aircraft is not airworthy?
15. Who determines if an aircraft is in compliance with required Part 91 inspections?
16. Do all aircraft have minimum equipment lists?
17. Can an aircraft be flown without an ELT
18. What are the basics of pilot responsibility regarding seatbelts and seats in aircraft?
1. Part 91.129 requires the Classes B, C, and D fly the IFR departure where one exists.
2. There are no departure minimums for Part 91 aircraft.
3. Other than Part 91 the other FAR parts are limited by visibility. Where climb requirements higher than standard exist there may also be ceiling minimum.
5. Commercial operations must have approved weather and alternates where field is below landing minimums.
6. 1.3 Vso at maximum certificated landing weight
7. Send in a written report of that deviation on FAA request.
8. A written report to the facility on request within 48 hours. FAR 91.123(d)
9. There are no takeoff minimums under Part 91. FAR 91.175
10. On being below the MDA without at least one of the visual requirements in sight.
11. When on a VASI runway you must remain at or above the VASI glideslope.
12. 200 knots FAR 91.117(b)
13. The pilot
14. The FAA after something happens to prove the pilot wrong.
15. The owner/operator
16. FAR 91.405 allows aircraft without an MEL to operate if inoperative items are properly placarded and disabled. Older aircraft do not have lists. Most G. A. aircraft are older.
17. An aircraft can be flown for 30 days without an ELT.
18. Each person must...a. be briefed on seatbelt operation; b. be notified to fasten bests before takeoff and landing; c. occupy an approved seat with secured belts as provided for takeoff and landings; Children under two years do not need separate seats.
1. When on approach you begin to see the ground occasionally at the MDA or DH. How does this influence your MAP decision?
2. What do you do if you are told that braking is nil when on the approach
3. What do you do if you find that you cannot depart before a clearance void time?
4. When on an ILS approach you find that you are in the clear and can see much of the runway but must enter fog to continue the approach?
5. There are no runway lights as you are on the ILS approach at dusk. You are Part 91. What do you do.
6. If your vectors to final set you up at the marker but far too high. What do you do?
7. What is required to land if you find that inside the marker the minimum visibility is below requirements?
8. You note a thunderstorm off the departure end of the runway, just as you are cleared for departure after a 45 minutes wait. What to do?
9. Do you fly if your medical is out of date by only one day?
10. After landing, you find that you had neglected to set the altimeter on an approach that was down to minimums. Who do you tell?
11. You are well equipped with two glide slopes. Their indications differ. What do you do?
12. Reported surface temperate is 5 degrees centigrade. You have some ice on the leading edge as you descend in IMC. What to do?
13. You have the long runway in view as you break out and see that it is covered with snow. What to do?
14. On short final a passenger says that the gear is not down. You have three green. What do you do?
15. You have just flown a very ragged approach but landed successfully;. What do you do?
16. When within a few miles of your home field, you note that the oil pressure is slightly low. What to do?
17. Your flying companion does something very poorly. What do you do?
18. What do you say to the controller if you arrive for the approach low on fuel?
1. Without the references required by 91.175 the missed is required.
2. Go to your alternate.
3. No go. AIM 5-2-4. Start the clearance procedure over with FSS.
4. Missed is required. Cancel IFR if conditions allow.
5. Not a problem for Part 91.
6. Make the missed procedure and come back on altitude and speed.
7. Part 91 lets you take a look.
10. Do a phase check on yourself.
11. Checking altitude at outer marker would tell you which is O.K.
12. Continue but add speed
13. Dont land
14. Go around and recheck gear
15. Plan some proficiency rides.
16. Get on the ground as soon as possible.
17. If it is a safety issue do not ignore.
18. "Minimum Fuel".
1. What segment is used for the outbound heading?
2. What segment is used for the inbound heading?
3. What segment is after the final approach fix?
4. What glide slope references are available for non-precision approaches?
5. What is the safety margin for obstacle clearance on a Cat1 ILS?
6. When is a Mode C not required?
7. How much altitude variation is allowable in a transponder Mode C?
8. How often must a transponder be certified for accuracy?
9. In Class E airspace how high can you fly without a transponder?
10. What happens to Mode C if you are on the incorrect altimeter setting?
11. If a VFR aircraft is assigned a visual hold at a particular point, what are you supposed to do?
12. When ATC sees that your flight is compressing the allowable separation allowed, what can you expect.
13. If issued a clearance limit short of your destination, what are you options?
14. What are the elements of a holding clearance?
1. The initial segment is the outbound course line.
2. The intermediate segment is the inbound course line.
3. The final segment is from the final approach fix to the missed approach point.
4. A non-precision approach may have a visual descent point or a VASI or VAPI. Make your own VDPs.
5. Near the runway it may be as little as 60 feet.
6. Mode C is not required below 10,000 and when outside the Class B Mode C 30 NM veil.
7. If your transponder shows over a 300 error after you have set the altimeter, you may expect ATC to have you stop use of Mode C.
8. The transponder accuracy check is required for all aircraft every two years.
9. Any flight above 10,000 feet MSL requires the use of a transponder capable of Mode C. The exception within 2500 of terrain.
10. Mode C altitude is determined by ATC computers that use the current altimeter setting. If your altimeter is incorrectly set, it does not affect the accuracy of your Mode C. You can expect ATC to give you notice of the error.
11. You are expected to circle the point instead of flying a racetrack.
13. Query ATC as to your clearance status, option to request slower speed or vectors exist.
14. Name of fix, altitude, holding direction, and EFC time.
1. What random routing (direct clearances) are allowed using Center radar?
2. What is the implied understanding of "proceed direct when able"
3. To legally fly a GPS approach what is required?
4. VORs have published service volumes. What is the service volume of an NDB
5. An OROCA (Jepp MORA) altitude on en route charts provides what obstacle clearance.
6. Is a turn coordinator required for IFR?
7. How do you check a turn coordinator prior to flight?
8. How do you determine turn rate from the attitude indicator?
9. Can you legally depart IFR without an operating transponder?
10. According to FAR 91.205 an IFR aircraft must have a sweep-second hand clock. What could you substitute?
11. What obstacle clearance do you have on feeder routes?
12. When on an OTP clearance your radios fail. What is the best option.
13. When flying with a restricted altitude on an OTP clearance you encounter clouds. What is the best option?
1. You must usually be above Minimum Instrument Altitude (MIA)
2. When you accept the "proceed direct when able" clearance you are telling ATC that you have ability to navigate independent of the radar.
3. You must have an IFR certified GPS and perhaps more.
4. The service volume of an NDB is 15 miles. Use GPS to check distance.
5. The 1000 extra obstacle clearance required by 91.177
in mountains as well as MIAs is provided by charted off-route
altitudes. OROCA stands for "off route obstruction clearance
altitude" and is found on IFR en route low altitude charts. The OROCA is
represented in thousands and hundreds of feet above mean sea level and
represents the highest possible elevation including both terrain and other
vertical obstructions (towers, trees, etc.) bounded by the ticked lines of
latitude and longitude. It is computed much the same as the maximum elevation
figure (MEF) found on VFR charts, except that OROCA provides an additional
vertical buffer of 1,000 feet in non-mountainous areas and a 2,000-foot buffer
in designated mountainous areas within the United States. OROCA may not,
however, provide for navaid signal or communications coverage and would not
necessarily be consistent with altitudes assigned by air traffic control.
6. Yes, unless you have a THIRD attitude indicator.
7. While the taxi check is standard, listen for gyro grinding sounds.
8. A standard rate turn is roughly 15% of TAS.
9. There is nothing in the FARs to cover this so it must be legal. You
need to find out if ATC will let you.
10. NEVER a watch. You can have a PANEL digital timer.
11. Feeder routes have normal obstacle clearance of 1000 and in mountains 2000.
12. Maintain VFR and fly to nearest VFR airport to advise ATC of what happened.
13. Deviate sufficiently to maintain cloud clearance and advise ATC.
1. What can you expect in a clearance?
2. What is the definition of a Visual Descent Point?
3. What is the speed limit in Class C and D airspace?
4. What is a cruise clearance?
5. What is an OROCA?
6. What is the MSA?
7. What should happen as you approach your clearance limit?
8. What is the MRA.
9. What is required before you are allowed to fly SVFR?
10. How is the MOCA related to navigation?
11. What is required when flying VFR-on-top?
12. What are the holding speeds as related to altitudes?
13. What is the maximum speed allowed by FAR below 10,000.
14. What is the maximum speed below Class B or in VFR corridors?
15. Seeing an ALSF-2 of maximum array length means visibility is...?
16. Are visual descent points regulatory?
17 When could you have the required FAR 91.175 visibility to descend below MDA and still unable to land legally?
18. Can you land if you have descended below MDA and have the runway in sight?
19. When is descent below DA/DH to 100 of TDZ allowed?
20. Are are the approved visual cues for descent below DA.DH or MDA?
1, OPRAH Point, procedure, route, altitude, holding
2. The VDP is a defined point on a non-precision straight-in approach at the MDA from which a normal descent to landing can be made given the proper visual references.
3. 200 knots is maximum speed in Class C and D airspace. AIM 91.117 (b).
4. Cruise clearance let you fly at any altitude above the MIA so long as it obeys the hemispheric rule up to 18,000.
5. The off route obstacle clearance altitude has 1000 obstacle clearance except for 2000 in the mountains.
6. The minimum safe altitude on IAP charts is given from a navaid.
7. You should get holding instructions before reaching the fix. If not, hold in right turns or as published on the course you arrived at the fix.
8. The minimum reception altitude is as low as a fix can be determined.
9. Airports must have one-mile visibility officially reported before an airplane is allowed to obtain a SVFR clearance.
10. The minimum obstruction clearance altitude provides VOR signals within 25 STATUTE miles of the VOR.
11. VFR cloud clearances and visibility are required as well as compliance with IFR strictures.
12. 200 kts at 6000 down; 230 knots six to fourteen thousand; 265 kts above 14,000.
13, 250 knots is the maximum speed allowed below 10,000.
14. 200 kts is maximum below Class B or in VFR corridors.
15. More than one statute mile.
16. VDP are not regulatory for Part 91. You can even make your own.
17. You may have the threshold but not the runway due to fog.
18. Depends on runway length. A part 91 could make a normal landing to a long runway. Other parts require TDZ landings.
19. FAR 91.175 allows this only with ALSF -1 and -2 systems.
1. What is the course width of an ILS?
2. How wide is the threshold of a typical back course?
3. What is the width of an LDA course?
4. What is the color of the middle marker light?
5. What is the color of the marker when on a back course approach?
6. What is the course width of a glide slope?
7. For what course distance does the localizer provide guidance?
8. What is the standard distance from the threshold to the middle marker?
9. What is the usable distance of the glideslope?
10. When does the whit marker light flash?
11. What is the width of a SDF course?
12. What does a compass do in any turn initiated from a 180 heading?
13. How can an unreliable AI be detected during taxi?
14. While taxiing in a left turn, how should the turn coordinator react?
15. What is the average number of PIREPs given daily in the U.S.?
16. What constitutes light icing?
17. What can be done to make a PIREP the most useful?
18. Who provides the most PIREPs?
1. Full needle deflection left to right at the threshold of the ILS is 700'. In degrees this will vary from 3 to 6 degrees.
2. The back course threshold full needle deflection may be from zero to 400'
3. An LDA is similar in course accuracy to the ILS above. There is no glide slope. The LDA will not be straight-in.
4. Middle marker light is Amber
5. The white marker light flashes when the aircraft is over the inner marker.
6. Simplified directional facility course width is set at either 6 or 12-degree width.
7. Back course markers are white.
8. Glide slope width is 1.4 degrees
9. The localizer can reach out 18 nautical miles up to 4500' with a path that give 1000' vertical terrain clearance
10. The distance from the middle marker to the threshold is 3500'.
11. The standard distance of the glideslope is 10 nautical miles but may be extended.
12. The turn is in the correct direction but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
13. During taxi a malfunction of the AI is indicated if the AI tips more than 5-degrees.
14. The turn coordinator aircraft will show a turn in the direction of the taxi turn.
15. Only about 1250 are given per day. The most underused resource of ATC.
16. Light icing is defined in the AIM rate table only as ice that may create a problem over a prolonged period.
17. A PIREP is most useful if an accurate location is given.
18. General Aviation provides most of the PIREPs
1. What are minimums in an ILS?
2. Can you use GPS to find the MAP?
3. A non-precision circling only approach with has two consecutive numbers with the last inside parenthesis. What do the numbers mean?
4. What is the defined missed approach point for an ILS?
5. How far into the glideslope is the localizer accurate?
6. How far down are glide slopes flight checked by the FAA?
7. What are the required IFR reserves for day and night flight?
8. What are the two-way radio failure procedures under IFR?
9. What are the reception radio failure procedures under IFR?
10. What are the transmitting radio failure procedure under IFR?
11. Are VFR charts required for IFR flights?
12. Where are obstacle protection highest where circling minimums exist?
13. What are TERPS obstacle clearance minimums for a straight-in non precision approach with a final approach fix and the VOR located on the airport?
14. What do MEAs guarantee?
1. The required minimum is one of visibility but that could apply if the ceiling is right at HAT. (Height above touchdown)
2. Conventionally, only timing with a sweep second-hand clock is the approved way. You could use GPS as backup.
3. The first number is the MDA (minimum descent altitude) and the number in parenthesis is height above the airport elevation.
4. While on the glideslope and reaching Decision Altitude (DA) is the defined missed approach point. DH is the above ground level (AGL) of the touch down zone (TDZ).
5. The localizer is accurate only to the runway threshold.
6. The FAA flight checks only to decision altitude (DA).
7. IFR reserves are the same for day and night. You must have sufficient fuel to fly to your destination, with reserves allowing cruise flight to your alternate and 45 minutes more. If VFR conditions prevail during your IFR flight then VFR minimums apply.
8. If in VFR conditions continue in VFR
9. If in VFR conditions continue in VFR
10. If in VFR conditions continue in VFR
11. VFR charts are not required for IFR flights but should you lose communications and be forced to fly in VFR conditions, and something happens where it would not have happened with VFR charts, the FAA can get you under the FAR "...all available information" requirement.
12. Obstacle clearance for circling minimums are usually higher within 1.3 mile radius of airport for Category A aircraft.
13. 250 feet.
14. MEA guarantee navigation reception and obstruction clearance. Communications and radar coverage are NOT part of the agreement.
1. Are weather conditions a factor in contacting ATC towers?
2. What weather briefing should you request six hours before departure?
3. What are basic VFR conditions required in Class D airspace
4. What initial information is required when phoning a FSS?
5. What initial information is required when radioing a FSS
6. What stage of a thunderstorm contains mostly downdrafts?
7. What is the physical process common to all weather?
8. Exactly what is a weather front?
|9. What are 59-degrees F and 29.92 millibars?
10. What does a cloud have if nimbus is part of its name?
11. What briefing is used to update a previous standard briefing?
12. What do you have when air is cooled enough to be saturated?
13. The field is below VFR but the runway is clearly in sight. When can you cancel IFR?
14. SVFR clearances can only be issued by ATC if there is one-mile visibility?
15. When can a SVFR aircraft have priority over an IFR aircraft?
16. What clearance will be read if you are told to hold from an intersection on a course of 135 degrees?
17. What direction is southeast by east?
1. Contact is required at all towered fields regardless of weather.
2. An outlook briefing is asked for six or more hours before departure.
3. Basic Class D airspace requires 1000 ceiling and 3 mile visibility for VFR flight.
4. First of all give the specialist your aircraft call sign.
5. Call the FSS as follows: "Oakland radio Cessna 1234X listening on 122.35".
6. The dissipating stage is predominately downdrafts.
7. Heat exchange is common to all weather.
8. a front is a boundary layer between to different air masses.
9. 59^F is the standard temperature and 29.92 is the standard pressure.
10. Rain clouds are suffixed with the word nimbus.
11. An abbreviated briefing is used to update a prior standard briefing.
12. The dew point occurs when air becomes saturated giving visible moisture.
13. You can cancel anytime but must get SVFR to continue approach.
14. SVFR helicopters do not require one-mile visibility.
15. It can't.
16. Hold Southeast
17. 112 1/2 degrees is southeast by east.
1. To legally file and fly a flight plan you must have ?
2. What common instrument is not required for IFR flight?
3. Can you file IFR to a destination without an IFR approach?
4. Can you make up your own airborne checkpoints?
5. Which instruments provide the most pertinent pitch information in a descent?
6. Besides 7600 on the transponder, what should you do in case of total radio failure when IFR?
7. What is the approach category of an aircraft using 100Kts?
8. Who is at fault if a pilot gives a clearance readback incorrectly and ATC does not correct his mistake?
9.Your ADF needle moves 5 degrees in two minutes. What is your time to fly to the station?
10. hat route information is published on a non-radar feeder route?
11. On an approach chart what can be said about the various sizes of print?
12. What are the segments of an NDB?
13. On a non-precision approach without a VASI how is the runway approach slope determined?
14. What is 'required' communications when you lose your glide slope while on approach?
15. How do you obtain a pop-up clearance?
1. You must have completed an Instrument Proficiency Check out within the past six months, logged six instrument approaches, holding procedures and tracking courses using navaids.
2. The vertical speed indicator is not required for IFR.
3. Yes, the arrival only requires that you can descend from the minimum vectoring altitude in VFR flight.
4. Yes, The point must be easily recognized along the centerline of an airway within 20 miles of a VOR
5. The attitude indicator is too coarse a device. The VSI lags and reacts too much to control input.
6. You should listen on VOR frequencies, head for VFR.
7. Category B is from 91 to 120 knots.
8. The pilot is responsible in nearly any event.
9. 24 minutes. Easy way to do this is to double both numbers making 10 degrees in 4 minutes. Four minutes is 240 seconds. Drop the zero and get 24. No wind allowance included.
10. Non-radar feeder routes always provide course, altitude and distance on the chart.
11.On approach charts, always read the small print.
12. On the outbound you are on the initial; inbound you transition to the intermediate, inside the marker you are on final.
13. Below the MDA without a VASI, you determine the approach slope visually.
14. You should advise ATC of the event when you lose your
glide slope on approach.
15. You get a pop-up clearance by contacting a radar facility. Give your type aircraft and equipment along with position and instrument approach request. You will be given a clearance along with a vector.
1. What illusion occurs during a rapid acceleration, as for takeoff, in IFR conditions?
2. Should ATC give you an altimeter setting for your flight above 18,000 feet? What will it be?
3. While trying to maintain level flight and altitude at a constant power what is the least appropriate flight instrument for selecting a pitch change?
4. What is the maximum error allowed for making an airborne VOR check using two different indicators?
5. When must an aircraft have an IFR flight plan?
6. What is the maximum speed for a G.A. aircraft in a holding pattern at 5000'?
7. On an approach requiring 2400RVR what alternative visibility can be used?
8. What can be substituted for an inoperative middle marker?
9. On today's ILS approach the outer marker light went out. What did we substitute?
10. When can we expect wind shear near the ground?
11. What is the minimum instrument time required to be current within the last six months?
1. The illusion is one of a nose up attitude when accelerating in IFR conditions
2. Altimeter setting at 18,000 feet and above is the pressure altitude.
3. While at a constant power and altitude a pitch change is difficult to set using the attitude indicator.
4. Four-degree difference is the maximum allowed between two VOR indicators regardless of how checked.
5. Every aircraft in Class A airspace and when IMC in Class E airspace must be on an IFR flight plan.
6. Holding pattern speeds cannot exceed 200 knots.
7. A 2400 food RVR requirement can be replaced by 1/2 statute mile ground visibility.
8. No substitution required. Minimums do not change.
9. When using the 'test' we had no outer marker light. I turned on the sound.
10. Hazardous wind shear is likely to exist during extreme temperature inversions and near thunderstorms.
11. There is no minimum time beyond that required to shoot six approaches, do holding procedures and track a course.
1. What are the requirements for a visual report?
2, What is a weather report with VNR mean.
3. What is the meaning of SMGCS
4. What must a private pilot with instrument rating take for a multi engine checkride?
5. What happens to Class D airspace when the tower closes?
6. What are three important factors related to an aircraft's stall speed?
7. Which of three aircraft axes is affected by aircraft loading to the rear of the CG?
8. What part of flying is a major cause of hypoxia susceptibility?
9. At what time are lighted position lights required?
10. The relative bearing of your ADF needle on the wing tip takes three minutes to change ten-degrees. How long will it take you to fly to the station
11. What is the significance of a vertical wind-shear value of 6 knots per 1000'?
12. Failure to adjust the mixture during climb can cause what effect to spark plugs?
1. In order to get or take a visual approach clearance the pilot must be able to remain clear of clouds, must see traffic to be followed and believe he can get to the airport. The airport must have three-mile visibility and a 1000' ceiling.
2. VNR means VFR not recommended.
3. SMGCS means Surface Movement Guidance and Control System a system for low-visibility taxiing.
4. Private pilot with instrument rating can get VFR only multi engine rating. Commercial pilot must show IFR competence.
5. When the tower of Class D closes, the airspace becomes Class E.
6. Aircraft stall speed is affected by weight, load factor, and power.
7. Aircraft loading affects the lateral axis of the aircraft.
8. The higher the altitude the more likely is the pilot to display hypoxic symptoms.
9. Lighted position lights are required at sunset.
10. Convert 3-minutes to 180 seconds. Drop the zero leaving 18, which is the no-wind time to station.
11. Though seemingly small, a 6-knot per 1000' wind shear is critical aspect of moderate or greater turbulence.
12. Since the mixture will be excessively rich if not leaned during climb, failing to lean can cause spark plug fouling. Proper leaning will give significant increases in power during climbs.
1. Under the hood, how would a pilot interpret centrifugal force?
2. What tolerance is allowed when making a VOR check over an airborne checkpoint?
3. What are sky conditions when not given on an ATIS?
4. IFR recency is good for what time period.
5. What is ATC tolerance for speed variation?
6. What can the pilot do if ATC issues a STAR in his clearance?
7. Where can a pilot determine which navaids have DME from an approach plate?
8. How does a pilot report light turbulence?
9. How does an aircraft determine its Category when on approach?
10. Radio failure at a holding pattern not a FAF and with an EFC time, what procedure
should be followed?
11. What is true 90% of the time about icing?
12. Where in a cloud will you encounter the most ice and moisture?
13. What type of cloud is most likely to have icing.
14. What kind of ice requires the quickest avoidance?
15. How much can the temperature in a carburetor drop in the mixing chamber?
16. At what temperature is impact ice on the induction filter most likely?
17. What are the six kinds of icing?
1. Centrifugal force would be sensed as rising or falling.
2. Airborne checks are allowed a plus or minus 6 degrees.
3. No sky conditions given on an ATIS means sky clear and unrestricted visibility.
4. Recency is good for six months. This means six approaches, holding and tracking
5. Any speed changes over 5% or 10 knots requires ATC notification.
6. A pilot can specify "No STAR" in his clearance request.
7. Navaids with DME have a 'D' in the navaid box.
8. Light turbulence has slight, erratic momentary altitude attitude changes.
8. Category on approach is determined by aircraft speed.
10. You depart the holding fix at EFC time.
11. Icing layers are less than 3000 feet thick and 50 miles long 90% of the time
12. The top of a cloud will contain the most moisture and ice.
13. A cumulus cloud will have more ice and accumulate ice twice as fast as a stratus cloud.
14. Clear ice is more dangerous and requires immediate action.
15. Warm moist air may drop as much as 70F inside the carburetor.
16. Impact ice is most prevalent at around 25 degrees F.
17. Icing forms are: clear, glaze, rime, induction, carburetor, and impact.
1. Can all altitudes and restrictions given in your clearance canceled by a clearance given by departure?
2. What are the VFR flight requirements that apply to VFR on top procedures?
3. If you smell a wire 'frying' under the panel, what are the NTSB Part 830 requirements?
4. When you are told to expect a sidestep to a parallel runway, when should you sidestep?
5. When handed off on a STAR how do you report to ATC?
6. What is the holding leg length above 14,000 feet?
7. What are the requirements for a visual report?
8. What is a weather report with VNR mean.
9. What is the meaning of SMGCS
10. What must a private pilot with instrument rating take for a multi engine checkride?
1. Yes. Departure must restate all altitudes and restrictions that apply once they have made any change.
Don't hesitate to ask for a full recounting of what they want.
2. All VFR requirements of cloud clearance and visibility apply during OTP. The pilot must follow both IFR and VFR procedures. Once on top VFR clearances must be maintained. Once ATC authorizes a descent IFR applies. The last altitude assigned controls the type of flight. OTP allows changes in altitude
to maintain cloud clearance.
3. NTSB Part 830.5 mentions in-flight fire as requiring notification immediately by quickest means.
4. A sidestep should be made when runway becomes visible.
5. When handed off on a STAR you should report the name of the STAR and that you are descending.
6. Above 14,000 feet the holding leg is for 1 and half minutes.
7. In order to get or take a visual approach clearance the pilot must be able to remain clear of clouds, must see traffic to be followed and believe he can get to the airport. The airport must have three-mile visibility and a 1000' ceiling. (Check this answer)
8. VNR means VFR not recommended.
9. SMGCS means Surface Movement Guidance and Control System a system for low-visibility taxiing.
10. Private pilot with instrument rating can get VFR only multi engine rating. Commercial pilot must show IFR competence.
1. If an ILS at your destination, what filing of an alternate is required?
2. What will the ammeter read at the point of a total electrical failure?
3. A split black box shows that an MEA Gap exists. What is it?
4. You can see the ground but not the airport while being vectored. What landing option exists?
9. What approaches are not included in a clearance to use any approach?
1. No alternate required if ceiling is forecast or reported to be at least 200' and 3 mile visibility from one hour before ETA to one hour after. Any lesser conditions require alternate.
2. Total electric failure will cause ammeter to read zero just as though master were off.
3. An MEA Gap on enroute charts means that there will be a period without VOR reception.
4. If you know where you are relative to the airport and have one mile visibility, request a contact approach
5. Future Air Navigation System is new sat/comm data link over oceans.
6. POI means Principal Operations Inspector - approves IFR simulators
7. ARSR is Air Route Surveillance Radar used by Centers.
8. DARC is a Center Direct User Access Channel back-up computer.
9. Contact and Visual approaches are not included in a blanket any approach clearance.
1. What are the four levels of icing?
2. What icing is forecast in an AIRMET (WA)
3. What ATC landing restrictions exist when runway braking is listed as nil?
4. What is ceiling or visibility if the ATIS does not give it?
5. What is the meaning of VIFNO?
6. What is the meaning of ASD?
7. ATCSCC means?
8. CWA means?
9. What makes a thunderstorm severe?
10. What is the holding speed from 6000 to 14,000?
11. At the outer marker there is an altitude in parenthesis. What is it?
12. What protection do you get from a MOCA (Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude)?
1. Icing levels are, trace, light, moderate, severe or TLMS.
2. AIRMETs will include moderate icing as reported or forecast.
3. Braking is listed as good, fair, poor or nil. Only the airport authority can close a runway.
4. Ceiling and visibility may be omitted if they are greater
that five and five.
5. In a void time clearance VIFNO means, "void if not off by ".
6. ASD means Aircraft Situation Display shown as a radar display by an air traffic computer.
7. ATCSCC means air traffic control system command center
8. CWA means Center Weather Advisory
9. A thunderstorm to be called severe must have winds 50Kt+ or 3/4" + hail.
10. Holding speed from 6000 to 14,000 is 230 knots
11. The altitude number in parenthesis is the height above touchdown zone.
12. MOCAs give safety along VOR airways, off-airway routes, within 22 nautical miles of a VOR.
13. A PLASI is a Pulsating visual Approach Slope Indicator (much like a VASI)
14. MEHT is Minimum Eye Height over threshold. This is the lowest altitude to see an on glidepath indication.
15. SSALR is a Simplified Short approach Light System with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights
16. HST-B is a High-Speed taxi turnoff on taxiway Bravo
17. TRCV is a Tri =-color Visual Approach Slope Indicator. Colors are Amber, green, and red.
1. How far is the service range of a terminal VOR
2. What is the service volume of a low-altitude VOR?
3. What is the service volume of a high-altitude VOR?
4. Was is the maximum allowable speed below Class B airspace?
5. What is the significance of a white and yellow airport beacon?
6. What is the standard of width used for each white strip at the threshold of an IFR runway?
7. What is the airspace class of a non-towered airport with an IFR approach?
8. Every two years the altimeter used for IFR is checked to have less than how much error?
9. In the air, what is the meaning of a flashing white light from the tower?
10. What is the expiration date on a pilot's certificate?
11. How are day and night landings different for meeting required proficiency and passenger carrying?
12. What chart is required by the distortion caused by aircraft lines of magnetic force?
13. What is the definition of a weather front?
14. what light signal give an aircraft clearance to land?
15. What is the best use a pilot can make of the low-level significant weather prognostic charts?
1. Terminal VOR can be used up to 25 miles. (I have used them up to 65 miles)
2. Low-altitude VORs have 40-mile useable range.
3. High-altitude VORs have an 80-mile useful range.
4. 200 knots is the maximum speed allowed below Class B airspace.
5.A white and yellow airport beacon indicates a lighted water airport.
6. Each stripe stands for 15-feet of width. Four stripes indicate 60 feet wide runway.
7. A non-towered airport with an instrument approach is Class E.
8. The maximum allowable error for an IFR altimeter is 75-feet.
9. The flashing white light has no meaning in the air. However, a flashing green means to return for landing.
10. It is the medicals that have limited life, there is no expiration dates on certificates.
11. The 90-day requirement applies in both cases but the three night landings must be to a full stop.
12. Every aircraft is requires to have a deviation card correcting compass errors caused by aircraft magnetism.
13. A weather front is a boundary between two different air masses.
14. A steady green light is used to signal an aircraft that it is cleared to land.
15. Low-level significant weather prognostic charts are best used for avoidance of icing, precipitation and turbulence.
1. When can you leave an assigned altitude when being vectored?
2. What is the allowable tolerance when making a VOT check of your VOR?
3. A departure procedure (DP) requires a climb of 210 fpnm. At 140 knots what is the required climb rate.
4. What must be done to get a VFR-on-Top clearance?
5. When is a holding pattern course reversal not required?
6. What is the duration of competency assured by passing an instrument competency check?
7. What must a pilot have in his possession in order to made a departure procedure?
8. An HIS gives correct sensing always when using a VOR. What happens with a localizer?
9. When does a handheld GPS require an FAA approval for use?
10. When can you cross three yellow flush mounted taxiway lights?
11. When can you cross three red flush mounted taxiway lights?
12. What restriction applies for the missed approach when making a practice approach?
13. While in radar contact you are told to hold at a given point. What communication by you is required?
14. Who is responsible if you read back a clearance incorrectly and ATC does not catch the error?
1. You can leave an assigned altitude when established on a segment of a published route or approach procedure.
2. A VOT check must be within plus or minus four degrees.
3. You must climb at 490 fpm to climb 210 feet per nautical mile at 140 knots.
4. A VFR-on-Top clearance must be requested by the pilot.
5. A holding pattern course reversal is not required when being radar vectored to the approach.
6. Passing an instrument competency check gives you six-months of currency.
7. You must have at least a textual description of the procedure before accepting the clearance.
8, To obtain correct sensing on a backcourse localizer with the HSI, you must use the front course setting.
9. Only when permanently mounted and wired does a handheld GPS require FAA approval.
10. You can cross flush mounted yellow taxiway lights any time you have been cleared to the other side.
11. You can cross flush mounted red taxiway lights only when they are not lighted.
12. Since a practice approach is not an IFR approach, you cannot fly the missed approach without a clearance.
13. You must report time and altitude passing the fix and then the time when leaving the fix.
14. The pilot only is responsible for an incorrect readback.
1. How does approach speed affect stopping distance on landing?
2. What effect does an ice surface have on landing stop distance?
3. How do you determine how to measure degrees of turn in a timed turn?
4. How can I determine a 3-degree rate of descent?
5. What is best no-wind endurance altitude?
6. In what way will Vx, Vy and Vg change for weight and altitude?
7. How does true airspeed change with altitude?
8. What happens to your IFR flight plan when you are cleared for a visual approach?
9. Are you required to report to loss of an ADF indication?
10. What is required from ATC for holding at a charted hold?
11. How much before the hold should you be given your clearance beyond the clearance limit?
12. How long before reaching the hold are you expected to slow to holding speed?
13. A COP (change over point) is required along a route with a MEA )minimum enroute altitude for what reasons?
14. Why do STARS include "expect" altitudes?
15. What is the procedure used for changing altitudes when VFR-On-Top (OTP)?
1. A six-knot increase in speed will add 100 feet to your stopping distance.
2. Ice or a wet surface will cause a 50-percent increase in required stopping distance.
3. Standard-rate turns is 3-degrees per second.
4. Take half the groundspeed and add a zero. At 90-knots, take 45 and add zero for 450 feet per minute.
5. At lower altitudes an aircraft has greater endurance.
6. V-speeds decrease .5 of a knot for every 100 pounds of weight reduction. They decrease with altitude as well.
7. For every 1000 feet of altitude there will be a 2-percent
increase in true airspeed.
8. The visual approach has no missed approach so you are required to cancel IFR to close flight plan.
9. FAR 91.187 and AIM 5-3-3 require reporting of any loss of navigational ability in controlled airspace.
10. The specialist must give both the direction of the hold and include "as published".
11. Your clearance beyond the clearance limit should be at least five minutes prior to reaching the fix.
12. You are expected to slow to holding speed three minutes before reaching the hold.
13. Using a COP prevents loss of navigational signal, frequency interference, use of different facilities by aircraft in the same airspace.
14. "Expect" altitudes are included in STARS for pilot planning purposes only.
15. While you are not provided separation and flying at VFR altitudes, ATC does want to know of changes.
1. Consuming 14.7 gph while groundspeed is 157 kts. Find fuel required to fly 612 nm.
2. Increasing airspeed from 90 to 135 knots in level 60° bank will have what effect on
3. ADF needle decreases for relative bearing of 315° to 270° in seven minutes. Time and distance to station is how long and how far?
4. What is the maximum accumulative time that an ELT battery can be operated before requiring replacement?
5. How do you determine pressure altitude?
6. What is the type of clouds formed by stable moist air forced up by a mountain slope?
7. On approach how do you monitor the extent of wind shear?
8. What is required for a pilot to operate a complex high performance aircraft?
9. How often are TAFs produced?
10. What navigation failures must you report to ATC?
11. When is DME or IFR GPS required?
12. While on approach the weather falls below minimums. What to do?
13. If an ATC vector is taking you into Class B airspace, what should you do?
14. What is the significance of temperature between 20 and 70 degrees Fahrenheit and a high humidity?
15. Under what conditions are compass readings most accurate?
1. 58 gallons
2. Load factor will not change but radius turn will increase.
3. Seven minutes and sixteen miles.
4. 60 minutes
5. Pressure altitude is determined by setting the altimeter to 29.92.
6. The clouds will be stratus without vertical development or turbulence.
7. The shear is revealed by the power and vertical velocity required to stay on glidepath.
8. Pilot must have endorsement as having received training in ground and flight in his logbook.
9. TAFs are produced four times per day.
10 FAR 91.187 requires ATC to be told of navigation, approach and communication problems. Loss of gyros is a reportable problem.
11. DME or IFR GPS is required above 24,000 feet.
12. Part 91 can continue, Other Parts can continue only if inside the FAF.
13. Get a Clearance into Class Bravo airspace before entering.
14. Conditions most conducive to carburetor icing.
15. Compass readings are most accurate in straight, level and unacelebrated flight.
1. Under what conditions might you expect a vector turn when below minimum vectoring altitude?
2. Are you required to report partial panel conditions to ATC?
3. What is the meaning of CENRAP?
4. Can there be two FAFs on the same approach chart?
5. Can any airport with an Instrument approach procedure and good weather be filed as an alternate?
6. According to the FARs when does known icing exist.?
7. When can a pilot be certain that icing exists?
8. Should you request a VFR climb on an IFR flight if conditions allow such a climb?
9. What happens to an assigned vector direction and assigned altitude restrictions when ATC makes a change in direction or altitude.
10.What is the meaning when an LOC-DME frequency box has rounded corners?
11.What is the small circle with a dot in the middle near a RCO box?
12. The airport on the Jepp terminal chart has an *D on the Class D boundary line. Why?
13. What is the aircraft designation when ATC uses the word POTUS?
1. Depending on antenna distance ATC must keep you three miles from obstacles until above MVA. ATC will vector you if within three miles.
2. Vacuum failure is not mentioned but since it affects your ability to navigate, it should be reported. Any ATC turn given should be commenced immediately.
3. CENRAP means that a local radar facility has had a radar failure and is using Centers radar feed and antenna. You cannot be vectored to final nor is Mode C useable.
4. Yes, the FAF for ILS is at glideslope intercept; the marker is the FAF and timing fix for the localizer.
5. No! The filed required alternate must be a non-GPS approach
6. Known icing exists if forecast or reported.
7. A pilot knows that icing exists when it appears in a PIREP.
8. Yes. IFR separation rules may require the ATC specialist to keep you low. Your request releases ATC from those rules.
9. The latest ATC assignment wipes out the previous one be it heading or altitude. Changed heading leaves altitude
assignment intact; changed altitude leaves heading intact. Both may be changed, too.
10. The rounded corners of the frequency box indicate that the navaid has an enroute function.
11. The small circle with a dot in the middle near a RCO box is the physical location of the RCO.
12. The *D denotes that the Class D airspace is part-time. Refer to the A/FD
13. POTUS aircraft are Air Force One. The 'President of the United States' is aboard.
1. Under what weather conditions are an alternate not required for an airport with an instrument approach?
2. What determines whether an airport can be filed as a legal
3. What is true about the relationship between the approach descent angle and the Visual Glide Slope Indicator?
4. Which has the lower temperature, the freezing point or the melting point?
5. Why does a power-on stall occur at a lower speed than a power stall?
6. What is the significance of a single dashed line across a taxiway?
7. What is an aircraft doing if ATC instructs it to squawk 4400 and 4477?
8. How many percentage points separate the midair accident fatalities from the safe landings made?
9. When an aircraft is certified under Part 23, what is the required fuel time of full power operation?
10. What other airport option exists at a multi runway airport
when a pilot finds himself unable to make the required crosswind
11. What are the pilot/aircraft requirements for night SVFR?
12. A terminal aerodrome forecast (TAF) says, "PROB40 before giving weather. Meaning?
13. What must be true for a non-precision approach airport to be listed as an alternate?
14. What determines the validity of a Commercial Pilot Certificate?
15. With the course deviation needle (CDI) centered, how far should the omni bearing selector (OBS) be turned to get full deflection of a VOR signal?
16. With the course deviation needle (CDI) centered, how far should the omni bearing selector (OBS) be turned to get full deflection of a LOC signal?
17. What is the common name and contact procedure used to talk to the Enroute Flight Advisory Service?
1. If airport has an IAP there is no need for an alternate if the ceilings and visibility from one hour before to one hour after the ETA are forecast to be 2000 feet and three miles. Without an IAP an alternate must be filed.
2. First factor is the type of instrument approach; second factor is the forecast weather.
3. The descent angle on the chart will keep you a bit higher that will the VGSI.
4. The freezing point and melting point both are at the same temperature.
5. The weight of an aircraft determines the stall speed. The thrust of the propeller effectively makes the aircraft weigh less during the power on stall.
6. The single dashed line across a taxiway is a hold line when ATC advises a pilot to hold because of conflicting traffic on an intersecting runway.
7. These codes are specific to pilots wearing pressure suits in aircraft operating in Class E above 60,000 feet.
8. Four percent. 56 of the accidents have fatalities and 60 percent of the aircraft make safe landings.
9. How about, thirty minutes.
10. It is legal to use a taxiway. Some airports even have taildragger crosswind runways (taxiways)
11. For night SVFR a pilot must be IFR current and the aircraft
must be IFR current and equipped.
12. PROB40 means that there is a 40 percent probability of the forecast being accurate.
13. Qualified weather observer must forecast an 800-foot ceiling and two statute miles of visibility at ETA
14. A Class-1 or 2 medical certificate validates a commercial pilot certificate.
15. The needle will (should) be fully deflected when the OBS is 10 degrees off center.
16. The localizer needle is not affected by turning the OBS knob. It is fully deflected when 2.5 degrees off course.
17. EFAS is commonly called Flight Watch; the below 17,500 foot contact frequency is 122.0. The identification is by the ARTCC facility name. You identify your aircraft and the name of the nearest VOR in your initial call-up.
1. What is the meaning of HAZ on an approach chart?
2. You have filed IFR at an uncontrolled airport and have been given a hold for release time. What are your departure options?
3. What is the Fujita scale?
4. What are derechos?
5. What is a Mesoscale Convective Complex?
6. What is used as your arrival point when filing an IFR flight plan?
7. What four terms are used to indicate rate at which ice is increasing?
8. What are the only two descriptive terms used to describe types of ice?
9. What is the angle above the horizon of airport rotating
1. HAZ is a NOTAM contraction meaning hazard.
2. One of them is to depart VFR. VFR is always a departure option visibility permitting.
3. The Fujita scale is a method of measuring the intensity of tornadoes.
4. Derechos are tornado like downbursts that derive from squall lines.
5. A Mesoscale convective complex is a self sustaining weather system as large as a state of convective storms.
6. The destination of the usual IFR flight plan is figured to be arrival at the initial approach fix.
7. Severity of icing is based upon rate of build-up as Trace, Light, Moderate and Severe
8. Ice is either rime or clear.
9. Airport beacons are between one and ten degrees above the
horizon. 3 degrees seems most common.
1. What is the maximum holding speed above 14,000'?
2. What are the useful functions of enroute change over points. (COP)
3. The standard holding legs are either one mile or one and a half-mile. What is the break altitude?
4. When is a VOR report supposed to be made?
5. What is allowed of you when ATC directs you to, "Resume own Navigation"?
6. What determines the landing minimums to be used once the pilot has departed to his alternate?
7. How does a VORTAC advise the pilot that the VOR part is out while the DME part is operational?
8. What flight adjustments must be made if the VSI always shows a 100-fpm climb during runup?
9. How often are Airmets issued?
10. How is the Class E airspace extending upward from 700
feet or more over the surface and ending at the base
of the overlying controlled airspace described?
11. What does the 800-foot ceiling and two statute mile visibility tell you about your filed alternate.
12. What navigational aid is seldom used while making an ILS approach?
13. What words describe the FAR IFR requirement that a pilot
be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of
intended use and alternatives if the flight cannot be completed?
1. The maximum holding speed above 14,000' is 256 knots.
2. Changeover points are used to ensure terrain clearance,
provide navigational guidance and prevent frequency
3. Holding leg length goes from one mile to one and a half miles at 14,000'.
4. Report should be given at the moment the to/from window reverses.
5. Being cleared to use your own navigation does not include any altitude assigned.
6. Unlike the filed alternate minimums, once the pilot heads
for the alternate it is the landing minimums for the
approach to be used that apply.
7. When a VORTAC has only the DME functioning the coded ident is sent once every thirty-seconds.
8. Whenever the VSI reads incorrectly on the ground the pilot
may depart and read the error as zero mark for all
climbs and descents.
9. Airmets are issued every six hours. They are amended by Amendments X, Y and Z. X is for a change in the
weather, Y is a change in wind and turbulence and Z is in icing conditions.
10. The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or
more over the surface and ending at the base of the
overlying controlled airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport with an
instrument approach procedure.
11. 800 and 2 are the minimum weather conditions that must
be forecast for your ETA at an airport that has only
a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums for the IFR filed alternate airport.
12.Use ADF to give location of compass locator (outer marker) on ILS approaches.
13. The general rule is that prior to any IFR flight the pilot
must become familiar with all information concerning that flight.
1. High altitude weather balloon.
2. ESA is Military Emergency Safe Altitude off-route.
3. Threshold lights are one of the ten visuals that authorize landing.
8. ATC should clear you five-minutes prior to your arrival at fix.
9. If the IAF, isn't charted on any en-route charts, so there's no tie-in to the en-route airway system, making radar vectors the only way to get to the IAF
10. The rule says that unless you are flying a published NoPT route or are on radar vectors to the final approach course, you must fly the PT. It doesn't always make sense, but that's the rule.
11.Holds don't have to be 1-minute legs. If you have DME or GPS, it's common to specify the leg length in terms of distance, not time.\
In preparation for my Instrument Written test, I downloaded the
Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank (Instrument Rating) last week and
noticed several new questions (which were not covered in Gleim's book
and several online practice test sites that I have checked). I am
somewhat confident of my answers for all but the last question and
would like some help. Thanks.
What information is contained in the Notices to Airman Publication
A) Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs.
B) All Current NOTAMs.
C) Current NOTAM (L) and FDC NOTAMs.
What is the rule for a pilot receiving a "Land and Hold Short Operation
A) The pilot is required to accept the controller`s clearance in visual
B) The pilot must accept the clearance if the pavement is dry and the
stopping distance is adequate.
C) The pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances
regardless of the meteorological conditions.
What are the primary benefits of satellite based area navigation
A) Provides optimal routing and altitudes.
B) Radio tuning and controller communication is minimized.
C) Standard Terminal Arrival Routes and Departure Procedures are not
Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is:
A) an airborne RADAR system for monitoring approaches to two runways.
B) a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel
C) a high update rate RADAR system for monitoring multiple aircraft ILS
approaches to a single runway.
An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if
A) the airport has AWOS-3 weather reporting.
B) the airport is located next to a restricted or prohibited area.
C) the NAVAIDS used for the final approach are unmonitored.
(Refer to figure YYYYY) Why is there a note stating a temperature
limitation for executing this approach with BARO-VNAV equipment?
A) The descent gradient exceeds the maximum standard of 400-foot per
Nautical Mile at low temperatures.
B) The decision altitude and final approach segment height above
obstacles or terrain is unsafe when temperatures are lower than
C) The missed approach climb gradient exceeds the airplane maximum
standard of 40 to 1 at low temperatures.
How can the pilot determine, for an ILS runway equipped with MALSR,
that there may be a penetration of the obstacle identification surfaces
(OIS), and care should be taken in the visual segment to avoid any
A) The runway has a visual approach slope indicator (VASI.)
B) The published visibility for the ILS is no lower than 3/4 SM.
C) The approach chart has a visual descent point (VDP) published.
Answer B ?????
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